Indian Polity Test

(A-1 to A-212)

SET-I

Q1. Under Article 1 of the Indian Constitution, how is India described?
A) Federation of States
B) Union of States
C) Confederation of States
D) Union of India and its Territories

Q2. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes ‘Untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form?
A) Article 16
B) Article 17
C) Article 18
D) Article 23

Q3. Article 40 of the Directive Principles of State Policy gives direction to the State regarding:
A) Uniform Civil Code
B) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
C) Organization of Village Panchayats
D) Provision for free and compulsory education

Q4. Which Article is referred to as the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32

Q5. Article 44 directs the State to secure for the citizens:
A) A Uniform Civil Code
B) Equal pay for equal work
C) Participation of workers in management
D) Protection of monuments

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Citizenship (Articles 5-11):

1. The Constitution describes the permanent provisions regarding the acquisition and loss of citizenship.
2. The Parliament has the power to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 2 only
   C) Both 1 and 2
   D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q7. Which of the following writs is known as the “Bulwark of Individual Liberty”?
A) Mandamus
B) Quo-Warranto
C) Habeas Corpus
D) Certiorari

Q8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List-I (Provision)	List-II (Article)
A. Abolition of Titles	1. Article 29
B. Protection of interests of minorities	2. Article 21A
C. Right to Education	3. Article 18
D. Prohibition of traffic in human beings	4. Article 23

Codes:
A) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
B) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
C) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

Q9. Regarding Article 19 (Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.), consider the following:

1. The right to strike is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c).
2. The freedom of movement can be restricted in the interest of the general public or for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 2 only
   C) Both 1 and 2
   D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q10. Under Article 12, the term “State” includes which of the following?

1. The Government and Parliament of India.
2. The Government and Legislature of each of the States.
3. All local or other authorities within the territory of India.
4. Private bodies working as an instrument of the State.
   Select the correct answer using the code below:
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 1, 2 and 3 only
   C) 1, 3 and 4 only
   D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q11. Which among the following DPSP is considered a “Socialist Principle”?
A) Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code)
B) Article 40 (Village Panchayats)
C) Article 39(d) (Equal pay for equal work)
D) Article 50 (Separation of Judiciary)

Q12. In the context of Article 3 (Formation of new States), consider the following statements:

1. A bill regarding the formation of a new state can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
2. The President is bound by the views expressed by the State Legislature within the specified period.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 2 only
   C) Both 1 and 2
   D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q13. Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offenses. It contains which of the following doctrines?

1. No Ex-post-facto Law
2. No Double Jeopardy
3. No Self-incrimination
   Select the correct answer:
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q14. The “Right to Property” was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights (Article 31) and converted into a legal right under Article 300A by which Amendment?
A) 42nd Amendment Act
B) 44th Amendment Act
C) 86th Amendment Act
D) 97th Amendment Act

Q15. Consider the following pairs regarding DPSP:

• Article 39A: Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid
• Article 43A: Participation of workers in management of industries
• Article 48A: Protection of monuments and places of national importance
  How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
  A) Only one
  B) Only two
  C) All three
  D) None

Q16. Assertion (A): Article 14 forbids class legislation but does not forbid reasonable classification for the purposes of legislation.
Reason (R): The classification must be arbitrary, artificial, or evasive and need not have any relation to the object sought to be achieved by the legislation.
Select the correct answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

Q17. “The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.”
This power of Judicial Review is explicitly mentioned in:
A) Article 13(2)
B) Article 32
C) Article 226
D) Article 368

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding Article 2 and Article 3:

1. Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not already part of the Union of India.
2. Article 3 relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India.
3. Laws made under Article 2 and Article 3 are considered Constitutional Amendments under Article 368.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q19. With reference to Article 21 (Protection of Life and Personal Liberty), consider the following:

1. It is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
2. It protects against arbitrary executive action but not against arbitrary legislative action (post-Maneka Gandhi case).
3. The “Right to Sleep” and “Right to Reputation” have been declared as part of Article 21 by the Judiciary.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 1 and 3 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q20. Regarding Preventive Detention under Article 22, consider the following statements:

1. No person can be detained indefinitely; the maximum period without an Advisory Board’s opinion is 3 months.
2. The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22(1) and 22(2) is available to enemy aliens.
3. The Parliament has exclusive authority to prescribe the maximum period of detention.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 3 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q21. Which of the following is NOT a ground on which the State can impose reasonable restrictions on the ‘Freedom of Religion’ under Article 25?
A) Public Order
B) Morality
C) Health
D) Security of the State

Q22. Consider the following regarding Article 34 (Martial Law):

1. The Constitution does not define the term ‘Martial Law’.
2. It indemnifies any person in the service of the Union or State for any act done in connection with the maintenance of order.
3. During Martial Law, the Writ of Habeas Corpus is automatically suspended.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 2 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q23. The distinction between ‘Nationality’ and ‘Citizenship’ is relevant to which Article when determining eligibility for certain offices (like the President)?
Note: In India, both by birth and naturalized citizens are eligible, unlike the USA.
Which Article restricts discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence in respect of employment?
A) Article 15
B) Article 16
C) Article 14
D) Article 29

Q24. Arrange the following stages of the ‘Right to Freedom’ (Article 19) in the correct logical order as they appear in the Constitution:

1. To form associations or unions.
2. To move freely throughout the territory of India.
3. To assemble peaceably and without arms.
4. To reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
   Select the correct answer:
   A) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
   B) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
   C) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
   D) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

Q25. Article 50 prescribes the separation of the Judiciary from the Executive. In the context of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) of 1973, this was practically achieved by separating:
A) The District Magistrate from the Superintendent of Police.
B) The Judicial Magistrates from the Executive Magistrates.
C) The High Court from the State Legislature.
D) The Supreme Court from the Ministry of Law.

SET-II

Q1. Article 51A (Fundamental Duties) was added to the Indian Constitution by which Amendment Act?
A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
C) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
D) 91st Amendment Act, 2003

Q2. Under Article 72, the President has the power to grant pardons. Which of the following is NOT a type of pardoning power mentioned?
A) Commutation
B) Remission
C) Respite
D) Injunction

Q3. Who among the following holds office during the “pleasure of the President” as per Article 76?
A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) The Attorney General of India
C) The Comptroller and Auditor General
D) The Vice-President

Q4. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, who presides over the session?
A) The Prime Minister
B) The Secretary-General of Lok Sabha
C) A member of the Panel of Chairpersons
D) The Senior-most member of the House

Q5. Article 100 stipulates the Quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament. What is the required Quorum?
A) 1/10th of the total number of members of the House
B) 1/3rd of the total number of members of the House
C) 50 members present
D) 1/5th of the total number of members of the House

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the election of the Vice-President (Article 66):

1. The Electoral College consists of elected members of both Houses of Parliament only.
2. The Electoral College includes the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
3. The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 2 and 3 only

Q7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List-I (Provision)	List-II (Article)
A. Duties of Prime Minister	1. Article 87
B. Special Address by the President	2. Article 78
C. Rights of Ministers in Houses	3. Article 61
D. Impeachment of President	4. Article 88

Codes:
A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
B) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
C) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Q8. Regarding the Council of Ministers (Article 75), consider the following:

1. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
2. Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
3. A Minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a Minister.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the “Casting Vote” under Article 100?
A) The Speaker can exercise a casting vote in the first instance.
B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha cannot exercise a casting vote in case of a resolution for his removal.
C) The Speaker exercises a casting vote only when there is an equality of votes.
D) Both B and C are correct.

Q10. With reference to Article 51 (Promotion of international peace and security), the State shall endeavor to:

1. Maintain just and honorable relations between nations.
2. Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations.
3. Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
   Select the correct answer using the code below:
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Under Article 98 (Secretariat of Parliament):

1. Each House of Parliament has a separate secretarial staff.
2. Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to the secretarial staff.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 2 only
   C) Both 1 and 2
   D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q12. Article 85 empowers the President to:

1. Summon the Houses of Parliament.
2. Prorogue the Houses or either House.
3. Adjourn the meetings of the House.
4. Dissolve the Lok Sabha.
   Select the correct option:
   A) 1, 2 and 4 only
   B) 1, 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 4 only
   D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q13. The “Oath or Affirmation” by the President of India (Article 60) is administered by:
A) The Vice-President
B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C) The Chief Justice of India
D) The Outgoing President

Q14. According to Article 71, all doubts and disputes arising out of the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by:
A) The Election Commission of India
B) A Joint Committee of Parliament
C) The Supreme Court of India
D) The Delhi High Court

Q15. Assertion (A): The advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court.
Reason (R): Article 74 implies that the President is the nominal head, but the accountability of the Executive is to the Legislature, not the Judiciary.
Select the correct answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding the vacancy in the office of the President and Vice-President:

1. Under Article 62, an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of the President must be completed before the expiration of the term.
2. Under Article 68, an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of the Vice-President must be completed before the expiration of the term.
3. If a vacancy occurs due to death or resignation, the election for President must be held within 6 months, whereas for Vice-President, it must be held “as soon as possible.”
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 2 only
   C) 1, 2 and 3
   D) 2 and 3 only

Q17. Regarding Article 88 (Rights of Ministers and Attorney-General as respects Houses), consider the following:

1. The Attorney General has the right to speak in, and take part in the proceedings of, either House and any joint sitting.
2. A Minister who is a member of the Rajya Sabha has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha.
3. The Attorney General is entitled to vote in the proceedings of the House if the Speaker permits.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 2 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q18. Consider the following regarding the removal of the Speaker (Article 94 & 96):

1. A resolution for removal can be moved only after giving 14 days’ notice.
2. When the resolution for removal is under consideration, the Speaker cannot preside.
3. While the resolution is under consideration, the Speaker has the right to speak but cannot vote in the first instance.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q19. Under Article 102 (Disqualifications for membership), a person shall be disqualified if he holds any “Office of Profit”. Who is the final authority to decide whether a person has become subject to this disqualification (Article 103)?
A) The Speaker/Chairman of the respective House.
B) The Supreme Court of India.
C) The President, according to the opinion of the Election Commission.
D) The President, according to the opinion of the Council of Ministers.

Q20. Assertion (A): Under Article 53, the Executive power of the Union is vested in the President and shall be exercised by him directly or through officers subordinate to him.
Reason (R): “Officers subordinate to him” includes Ministers, implying that Ministers are legally subordinates to the President.
Select the correct answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

Q21. Regarding the duration of the Houses of Parliament (Article 83):

1. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
2. The term of the Lok Sabha (5 years) can be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation.
3. This extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q22. Article 82 deals with the readjustment after each census (Delimitation). Consider the following:

1. The allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the States is frozen based on the 1971 census until the relevant figures for the first census taken after the year 2026 are published.
2. The division of each State into territorial constituencies (internal adjustment) is currently based on the 2001 census.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 2 only
   C) Both 1 and 2
   D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q23. Which Article empowers the Parliament to make provisions for the discharge of the functions of the President in any contingency not provided for in the Constitution (e.g., if both President and VP die)?
A) Article 65
B) Article 70
C) Article 71
D) Article 73

Q24. Regarding the Penalty under Article 104:
If a person sits or votes as a member of either House of Parliament before complying with the requirements of Article 99 (Oath), or when he knows that he is not qualified:
A) He shall be liable to a penalty of ₹500 for each day, to be recovered as a debt due to the Union.
B) His vote shall be declared invalid immediately.
C) He shall be imprisoned for a term of 1 month.
D) He shall be debarred from contesting elections for 6 years.

Q25. In the context of Article 96 and Article 100, if the Speaker is present in the House while a resolution for his removal is under consideration:
A) He counts for the Quorum but cannot vote.
B) He does not count for the Quorum but can vote.
C) He can vote in the first instance but not in the case of an equality of votes.
D) He has a casting vote only.

SET-III

Q1. Under Article 108, who summons the Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock?
A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
B) The Prime Minister
C) The President
D) The Vice-President

Q2. Who certifies a bill as a “Money Bill” under Article 110, and whose decision is final?
A) The Finance Minister
B) The President
C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
D) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Q3. Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament. Such an Ordinance must be approved by Parliament within:
A) 6 months from the reassembly of Parliament
B) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament
C) 3 months from the date of issue
D) 6 months from the date of issue

Q4. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed by the President under which Article?
A) Article 148
B) Article 149
C) Article 150
D) Article 151

Q5. According to Article 129, the Supreme Court of India is a “Court of Record”. This implies:
A) Its proceedings are televised.
B) It has the power to punish for its contempt.
C) All its judgments must be written in Hindi.
D) It can only hear appeals from High Courts.

Q6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List-I (Subject)	List-II (Article)
A. Special Leave Petition (SLP)	1. Article 143
B. Advisory Jurisdiction of SC	2. Article 136
C. Review of Judgments by SC	3. Article 131
D. Original Jurisdiction of SC	4. Article 137

Codes:
A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
B) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Q7. Regarding the “Annual Financial Statement” (Budget) under Article 112, consider the following:

1. It distinguishes between expenditure on revenue account and other expenditure.
2. The “Charged Expenditure” upon the Consolidated Fund of India is submitted to the vote of Parliament.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 2 only
   C) Both 1 and 2
   D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q8. Under Article 101 (Vacation of Seats), a seat in Parliament becomes vacant if:

1. A member is absent from all meetings for a period of 60 days without permission of the House.
2. A person is chosen a member of both Houses of Parliament.
3. While calculating the 60 days, any period of prorogation or adjournment of more than 4 consecutive days is excluded.
   Select the correct answer:
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to Article 127 (Appointment of ad hoc Judges), consider the following:

1. Ad hoc judges are appointed when there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Court.
2. The Chief Justice of India appoints ad hoc judges with the previous consent of the President.
3. Only a retired judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as an ad hoc judge.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative procedure for Money Bills (Article 109):

1. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
2. The Rajya Sabha must return the bill within 14 days with or without recommendations.
3. If the Rajya Sabha rejects the bill, the Joint Sitting provision is applicable.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q11. Article 142 is frequently seen in the news (e.g., Ayodhya Verdict, Release of Perarivalan). It empowers the Supreme Court to:
A) Issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
B) Pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing “complete justice” in any cause or matter pending before it.
C) Advise the President on matters of public importance.
D) Transfer cases from one High Court to another.

Q12. Regarding the “Language to be used in Parliament” (Article 120):

1. Business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English.
2. The Presiding Officer may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or English to address the House in his mother tongue.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 2 only
   C) Both 1 and 2
   D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q13. Under Article 124, a Judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to:
A) The Chief Justice of India
B) The President
C) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D) The Prime Minister

Q14. Assertion (A): The validity of any proceedings in Parliament cannot be called into question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure (Article 122).
Reason (R): The Judiciary is the guardian of the Constitution, but the Parliament is sovereign in its internal procedural matters.
Select the correct answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

Q15. Under Article 148, the CAG is removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a:
A) Chairman of UPSC
B) Judge of the Supreme Court
C) Attorney General of India
D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Q16. “No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge.”
This restriction is mentioned in:
A) Article 105
B) Article 121
C) Article 122
D) Article 50

Q17. Consider the following statements regarding the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (Article 131):

1. The dispute must involve a question (whether of law or fact) on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.
2. It extends to a dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
3. It extends to a dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, or sanad entered into before the commencement of the Constitution.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q18. Regarding the “Appropriation Bill” (Article 114):

1. No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law.
2. An amendment can be proposed to the Appropriation Bill in either House of Parliament to vary the amount of any grant.
3. If the Appropriation Bill is rejected by the Lok Sabha, it amounts to a lack of confidence in the government.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 1 and 3 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q19. With reference to the legislative powers of the President (Article 123), consider the following:

1. An Ordinance promulgated under this Article has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
2. An Ordinance is void if it makes any provision which Parliament would not under this Constitution be competent to enact.
3. The satisfaction of the President regarding the necessity of immediate action is final and cannot be questioned in any court on any ground.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 2 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q20. Article 117 deals with Special Provisions as to Financial Bills. Identify the correct statement:
A) A Financial Bill (Category I) containing provisions of Article 110 can be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
B) A Financial Bill (Category I) can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
C) A Financial Bill (Category II) involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund cannot be passed by either House unless the President has recommended its consideration.
D) Both B and C are correct.

Q21. Regarding the officers and servants of the Supreme Court (Article 146):

1. Appointments of officers and servants of the Supreme Court are made by the President of India.
2. The administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, including salaries, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The conditions of service of officers are made by the CJI, but rules regarding salaries require the approval of the President.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q22. Consider the following regarding the “Vote on Account” (Article 116):

1. It is a grant in advance to meet the estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year pending the completion of the procedure for the voting of such grant.
2. It allows the government to withdraw money from the Contingency Fund of India.
3. It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to 1/6th of the total estimation.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 3 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q23. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgment or order (Article 137).
Reason (R): The Supreme Court is not bound by its own precedents and can correct its errors to prevent miscarriage of justice.
Select the correct answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

Q24. In the context of Parliamentary Privileges (Article 105), consider the following:

1. No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament.
2. This immunity extends to anything said by a member outside the Parliament if it is related to his parliamentary duties.
3. The publication of proceedings by the authority of the House is also protected.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 1 and 3 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q25. Article 143 (Power of President to consult Supreme Court) distinguishes between two categories of references. Which of the following statements is tricky but true?
A) In both categories (public importance & pre-constitution treaties), the Supreme Court is bound to give its opinion.
B) The Supreme Court may refuse to give its opinion in cases involving pre-constitution treaties/agreements.
C) The Supreme Court must tender its opinion in cases involving pre-constitution treaties/agreements, but may refuse in matters of public importance.
D) The opinion given by the Supreme Court is binding on the President.

SET-IV

Q1. Under Article 153, there shall be a Governor for each State. However, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 provided that:
A) The Governor must be born in the State concerned.
B) The same person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States.
C) The Governor is elected by the State Legislature.
D) The Governor can be removed by the Chief Minister.

Q2. Who appoints the Advocate General for the State under Article 165?
A) The President of India
B) The Chief Justice of the High Court
C) The Governor of the State
D) The Chief Minister

Q3. According to Article 161, the Governor has the power to grant pardons. Which of the following powers does the Governor NOT possess compared to the President?
A) Power to suspend a sentence.
B) Power to remit a sentence.
C) Power to pardon a death sentence.
D) Power to commute a sentence.

Q4. Who decides whether a Bill introduced in the State Legislature is a “Money Bill” or not (Article 199)?
A) The State Finance Minister
B) The Governor
C) The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
D) The Chairman of the Legislative Council

Q5. Article 169 empowers the Parliament to abolish or create which body in a State?
A) The High Court
B) The Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad)
C) The State Public Service Commission
D) The Tribal Advisory Council

Q6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:

List-I (Subject)	List-II (Article)
A. Executive power of State	1. Article 167
B. Duties of Chief Minister	2. Article 154
C. Sessions of State Legislature	3. Article 213
D. Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances	4. Article 174

Codes:
A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
B) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Q7. Regarding the nomination of members to the Legislative Council by the Governor (Article 171), which of the following fields is included for the Governor but not for the President ( Rajya Sabha nominations)?
A) Literature
B) Science
C) Cooperative Movement
D) Social Service

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General of a State (Article 165 and 177):

1. He is appointed by the Governor and holds office during the pleasure of the Governor.
2. He must be qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court.
3. He has the right to speak and vote in the proceedings of the State Legislature.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 2 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Under Article 200 (Assent to Bills), when a Bill passed by the State Legislature is presented to the Governor, he has which of the following options?

1. Give his assent.
2. Withhold his assent.
3. Return the Bill (if it is not a Money Bill) for reconsideration.
4. Reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President.
   Select the correct answer:
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 1, 2 and 3 only
   C) 1, 3 and 4 only
   D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. Regarding the Quorum to constitute a meeting of a House of the Legislature of a State (Article 189):
A) It is exactly 1/10th of the total number of members.
B) It is 10 members or 1/10th of the total members, whichever is greater.
C) It is 10 members or 1/10th of the total members, whichever is less.
D) It is fixed at 25 members.

Q11. Consider the following statements regarding Article 164 (Other provisions as to Ministers):

1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.
2. Other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
3. The total number of Ministers, including the CM, in a State shall not be less than 12.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q12. The “audit reports” of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of a State shall be submitted to whom, under Article 151(2)?
A) The President of India
B) The Governor of the State
C) The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
D) The Parliament

Q13. Which Article states that the validity of any proceedings in the Legislature of a State shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure?
A) Article 210
B) Article 211
C) Article 212
D) Article 194

Q14. In the context of the State Legislature, if a person is chosen a member of both the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of the same State:
A) His seat in the Assembly becomes vacant.
B) His seat in the Council becomes vacant.
C) Both seats become vacant.
D) Provisions are made by the Legislature of the State by law to decide which seat becomes vacant.

Q15. Assertion (A): The Constitution allows the creation of a Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) in a State under Article 169.
Reason (R): A resolution for creation or abolition must be passed by the State Assembly by a special majority, and then by Parliament by a simple majority.
Select the correct answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding the “Discretionary Powers” of the Governor vs the President:

1. The Constitution explicitly mentions that the Governor can act in his discretion in certain matters (Article 163).
2. The Constitution does not explicitly mention discretionary power for the President.
3. If any question arises whether a matter is within the Governor’s discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 2 only
   C) 2 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q17. Regarding the Legislative Procedure in States with a Bicameral Legislature (Articles 197 & 198), consider the following:

1. There is no provision for a Joint Sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock over an Ordinary Bill.
2. The Legislative Council can delay an Ordinary Bill for a maximum period of 4 months (3 months in first instance + 1 month in second instance).
3. The Legislative Council has equal power to the Legislative Assembly regarding the passage of Ordinary Bills.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q18. Under Article 213 (Power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances), the Governor cannot promulgate an Ordinance without instructions from the President if:

1. A Bill containing the same provisions would under this Constitution have required the previous sanction of the President for introduction.
2. He would have deemed it necessary to reserve a Bill containing the same provisions for the consideration of the President.
3. The State Legislature is suspended.
   Select the correct answer:
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q19. Consider the following statements regarding Article 201 (Bills Reserved for Consideration):

1. When a Bill is reserved by the Governor, the President may assent to the Bill or withhold assent.
2. If the President directs the Governor to return the Bill to the House, the House must reconsider it within 6 months.
3. If the House passes the Bill again with or without amendment and presents it to the President, the President is bound to give his assent.
   Which of the statements given above is/are tricky but correct?
   A) 1 and 2 only
   B) 2 and 3 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q20. Article 191 lays down disqualifications for membership. A person shall be disqualified for being a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a State:

1. If he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State specified in the First Schedule (with exceptions).
2. If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court.
3. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State.
   Who decides the question of disqualification on the above grounds (excluding Defection)?
   A) The Speaker/Chairman.
   B) The High Court.
   C) The Governor, according to the opinion of the Election Commission.
   D) The President of India.

Q21. Match the Composition of the Legislative Council (Article 171) correctly:

Category	Proportion of Total Strength
A. Elected by MLAs	1. 1/12
B. Elected by Local Bodies	2. 1/6
C. Elected by Graduates	3. 1/3
D. Nominated by Governor	4. 1/3

(Note: There are two 1/3 categories and two 1/12 categories)
Select the logic-based match:
A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
B) A-3, B-3, C-1, D-2
C) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D) A-3, B-3, C-2, D-1

Q22. “The Governor shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State.” This provision is contained in:
A) Article 163
B) Article 164
C) Article 166
D) Article 167

Q23. Assertion (A): The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly can be removed by a resolution of the Assembly passed by a majority of “all the then members” of the Assembly (Effective Majority).
Reason (R): Article 179 states that at least 14 days’ notice must be given for such a resolution.
Select the correct answer:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false but R is true.

Q24. Regarding the “Language to be used in the Legislature” (Article 210):

1. Business shall be transacted in the official language of the State, or in Hindi or in English.
2. The Constitution originally stated that the usage of English for this purpose would cease after 15 years (i.e., by 1965).
3. The State Legislature is empowered to provide by law for the continued use of English beyond the 15-year period.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   A) 1 only
   B) 1 and 2 only
   C) 1 and 3 only
   D) 1, 2 and 3

Q25. Which Article expressly states that “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State”?
A) Article 163(1)
B) Article 164(2)
C) Article 167
D) Article 164(1)

Answers and Explanations 

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