PGT Political Science PYQs
14 July Shift 1 Pol Sci PYQs
Reasoning and Aptitude Questions
1. Q: G, A, D, C, B, M and N live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above is, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. G lives on an even numbered floor but not on the topmost floor. B lives immediately between A and N. M lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the lowermost floor. Only two people live between M and D. B lives immediately above C. How many people live between C and B?
1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
4. One
2. Q: Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one out. (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
1. PQS
2. HJM
3. WYB
4. KOP
3. Q: Based on the English alphabetical order, select the triad that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two triads given below. Both triads follow the same pattern. LG-IK-RU ; NI-PK-RU
1. PK-RM-TV
2. OK-RN-TV
3. OK-RM-TV
4. PK-RM-TW
4. Q: What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 28 32 41 57 82 ? 15
1. 117
2. 120
3. 119
4. 118
5. Q: This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. 639 378 194 486 726 (Right) If all the numbers are arranged in the ascending order, the position(s) of how many numbers will remain unchanged?
1. One
2. Two
3. None
4. Three
6. Q: In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operation(s) to the numbers on the left side of ‘:’ . The same operation(s) need to be followed by the two numbers on the left side of ‘:’ is the same as that on the right side of ‘::’ ? 49 : 7 :: 13 : ? (NOTE- Operations on numbers like 49, 13 etc. are allowed, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be allowed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
1. X = 8, Y = 676
2. X = 22, Y = 12
3. X = 20, Y = 10
4. X = 22, Y = 8
7. Q: G, A, D, C, B, M and N live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above is, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. B lives on an even numbered floor. M lives immediately above D and two floors above N. A lives immediately above C. Who lives on the floor immediately above B?
1. A
2. N
3. B
4. D
8. Q: Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select the odd one out. (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
1. SNR
2. NJM
3. KFJ
4. PKQ
9. Q: In a certain code language, ‘P & Q’ means ‘P is the wife of Q’. ‘P@ Q’ means ‘A is the wife of B’. ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is the father of B’. ‘P * Q’ means ‘P is the mother of B’. and ‘P = Q’ means ‘A is the father of B’. If $ is substituted for * and # is substituted for =, and * is substituted for $, and = is substituted for # in the expressions, H $ F @ Q & S # U = V?, how is F related to V if Y @ G $ H < U = V?
1. Father’s brother’s wife
2. Wife’s husband’s sister
3. Mother’s sister’s son
4. Husband’s brother’s wife
10. Q: In a certain code, ‘air fresh is clean’ is coded as ‘ha uk pa’, ‘fresh ship float air’ is coded as ‘uk do le’ and ‘is ship water’ is coded as ‘do pa zi’. What is the code for “water”?
1. pa
2. zi
3. ka
4. do
11. Q: In the following series, only one letter-cluster is incorrect. Select the INCORRECT letter-cluster. YAD EOJ KMP QSU WYS
1. QSU
2. KMP
3. WYB
4. EOJ
12. Q: Identify the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to the following series. EHJ FRL GJM HKN ILO JMP
1. GJM
2. HKN
3. ILO
4. EHJ
13. Q: Seven people, H, I, J, K, L, M and N are standing in a row, facing the north. Exactly three people are standing between I and L. J is standing fourth to the right of N. Exactly one person is standing between K and J. M and K are immediate neighbours of H. Who is standing fourth to the right of N?
1. K
2. J
3. M
4. I
14. Q: Pushkar starts from point A and drives 12 km towards the west. He then takes a left turn and drives 17 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 5 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 12 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 5 km towards the west. He then takes a left turn and drives 17 km. He takes a final right turn and reaches Point B which lies at Point Q. What is the shortest distance between point Q and point B? (All turns are 90 degree turns only.)
1. 3 km
2. 1 km
3. 2 km
4. 4 km
15. Q: In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by applying certain mathematical operation(s) to the number on the left side of ‘:’ . The same operation(s) need to be followed by the two numbers on the left side of ‘:’ is the same as that on the right side of ‘::’ ? 12 : 65 :: X, Y (NOTE- Operations on numbers like 12, 65 etc. are allowed, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding to/subtracting from/multiplying with 13 can be allowed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
1. X = 27, Y = 55
2. X = 11, Y = 55
3. X = 12, Y = 55
4. X = 12, Y = 54
16. Q: If ‘I’ stands for ‘+’, ‘J’ stands for ‘x’, ‘K’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘L’ stands for ‘-‘, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 64 K 8 J 12 L 23 I (17 K 13) I 63 J 2 = ? 168
1. 242
2. 212
3. 233
4. 253
17. Q: This question is based on the five, three-digit numbers given below. (Left) 345 618 731 546 198 (Right) NOTE – All operations to be done from left to right. If all the numbers are arranged in the ascending order, the position(s) of how many numbers will remain unchanged?
1. Two
2. None
3. Three
4. One
18. Q: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: Some monkeys are zebras. All zebras are bears. All bears are monkeys. Conclusions: (I) All monkeys are zebras. (II) Some monkeys are giraffes.
1. Only conclusion (I) follows
2. Only conclusion (II) follows
3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
19. Q: If ‘P’ stands for ‘x’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘+’, ‘R’ stands for ‘÷’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘-‘, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? (17 P 19) S (162 Q 14) P 2 R 3 S 42 P 5 = ? 160
1. 261
2. 313
3. 272
4. 299
20. Q: Given below is a statement followed by two possible reasons numbered I and II. Read the statement carefully and choose which of the two reasons explain(s) the event/observation/information given in the statement. Statement: Despite having a reputation for producing premium-quality tea, Region A has not become a prominent hub for tea exports from the country. Reasons: I. Limited access to international ports and shipping routes from Region A inhibits its export capabilities. II. Strong competition and lack of sufficient domestic demand for tea exports, reducing the market opportunity for Region A.
1. Both I and II are possible reasons
2. Only I is a possible reason
3. Only II is a possible reason
4. Neither I nor II is a possible reason
General Knowledge/Awareness Questions
21. Q: In which of the following cities of India is the headquarters of National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language located?
1. Agra
2. Mumbai
3. Hyderabad
4. New Delhi
22. Q: Which of the following is a major mineral needed by the human body?
1. Molybdenum
2. Potassium
3. Selenium
4. Chromium
23. Q: After defeating Harshavardhana in circa 630 CE, who among the following kings acquired the title of ‘Dakshinapatheshvara’ (lord of the south)?
1. Narasimhavarman I
2. Pulakesin II
3. Mahendravarman
4. Pulakesin I
24. Q: Which of the following bodies is responsible for the recruitment of personnel for All India Services?
1. Staff Selection Commission
2. National Recruitment Agency
3. State Public Service Commission
4. Union Public Service Commission
25. Q: India has taken a major leap in weather science with the launch of the Bharat Forecasting System (BFS) in which of the following months of 2025?
1. July
2. May
3. January
4. March
26. Q: Which of the following demographic indicators showed an increase from the National Family Health Survey-4 (2015-16) to the National Family Health Survey-5 (2019-21)?
1. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
2. Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR)
3. Anemia among women (15-49 years)
4. Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
27. Q: Which of the following statements about the rights guaranteed under Article 19 in/are correct? 1. The right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies is guaranteed. 2. The right to assemble peaceably and without arms is guaranteed. 3. The right to seek foreign employment is guaranteed.
1. 1 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only
28. Q: Which Indian state faced severe floods and landslides due to pre-monsoon showers followed by the southwest monsoon during April 2022?
1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Punjab
4. Assam
29. Q: Which of the following schedules deals with the division of powers between the Union and the States?
1. First Schedule
2. Fifth Schedule
3. Seventh Schedule
4. Second Schedule
30. Q: Select the INCORRECT option. Social infrastructure improves human productivity and efficiency through facilities for:
1. health
2. energy
3. housing
4. education
31. Q: Which institution is primarily responsible for providing and regulating credit for the promotion of agriculture and rural development in India?
1. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
2. State Level Bankers Committee (SLBC)
3. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
4. State Bank of India (SBI)
32. Q: In which of the following years did the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language start its operations?
1. 1998
2. 1996
3. 1999
4. 1997
33. Q: The fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana was organised under the patronage of which of the following kings?
1. Kanishka
2. Rudradaman I
3. Ashoka
4. Pushyamitra Shunga
34. Q: The Indian Racing Festival, conceptualised by Racing Promotions Pvt. Ltd., a motorsport venture encompassing two championships, the Indian Racing League (IRL) and the Formula 4 Indian Championship (F4IC), was scheduled to start _______, 2024.
1. August
2. October
3. December
4. November
35. Q: Which of the following accurately describes “fixed costs” in production?
1. Costs that include both explicit and implicit expenses
2. Costs that vary with the level of production output
3. Costs that remain constant regardless of the level of production output
4. Costs that fluctuate based on market conditions
36. Q: Match the following movements with their founders. Movements: 1. Brahmo Samaj, 2. Arya Samaj, 3. Ramakrishna Mission, 4. Prarthana Samaj. Founders: a. Swami Vivekananda, b. Mahadev Govind Ranaday, c. Dayananda Saraswati, d. Raja Ram Mohan Rai.
1. 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d
2. 1 – a, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – d
3. 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c
4. 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – d
37. Q: Which of the following is NOT a national festival of India?
1. Republic Day
2. Gandhi Jayanti
3. Independence Day
4. Constitution Day
38. Q: What percentage of the world’s water resources does India account for?
1. 1.9 per cent
2. 2.3 per cent
3. 3.9 per cent
4. 4 per cent
39. Q: Which of the following portals was launched by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) on 30 June 2024, to enhance user experience and ease of data access?
1. StatPortal
2. DataEase Portal
3. eSankhyiki
4. eDataConnect
40. Q: What is the full form of AIDS?
1. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
2. Associated Immune Deficiency Syndrome
3. Associated Identity Deficiency Syndrome
4. Acquired Identity Deficiency Syndrome
Numerical Aptitude and Data Interpretation Questions
41. Q: If the 8-digit number 2567p973 is divisible by 9, then the value of p is:
1. 1.2
2. 2.3
3. 3.4
4. 4.3
42. Q: Two students appeared in an examination. One of them secured 16 marks more than the other and his marks were 65% of the sum of their marks. The sum of the marks obtained by them was:
1. 1.50
2. 2.51
3. 3.34
4. 4.56
43. Q: Hardik deposited a sum of ₹18,550 at 20% rate of interest per annum, compounded annually. The total amount (in ₹) received by Hardik after 2 years is:
1. 26,607
2. 26,521
3. 27,203
4. 26,712
44. Q: A man sells a mobile phone for ₹600 and loses some money. If he had sold it for ₹1,230, his gain would have been 2.5 times the nominal loss he has actually incurred. The cost price (in ₹) of the mobile phone is:
1. 775
2. 795
3. 805
4. 755
45. Q: The average of the squares of the first 92 natural numbers is:
1. 2667.5
2. 2869.5
3. 2868.5
4. 2866.5
46. Q: The value of x in the proportion 13 : 70 :: 26 : x is:
1. 140
2. 141
3. 142
4. 143
47. Q: The average of three numbers is 20. If two numbers are 15 and 26, the third number is:
1. 20
2. 18
3. 21
4. 19
48. Q: A and B working together can do a piece of work in 20 days. B alone can do the same work in 100 days. How long (in days) will A alone take to do the same work?
1. 28
2. 26
3. 27
4. 25
49. Q: A spherical metal ball of radius 21 cm is melted and recast into four metal cubes of side 21 cm each. Find the volume (in cm³) of unused metal ($\pi = \frac{22}{7}$).
1. 1556
2. 1764
3. 1625
4. 1879
50. Q: The simple interest on a sum is ₹324 for a period of 4 years at the rate of 3% per annum. The sum (in ₹) is:
1. 2,697
2. 2,700
3. 2,707
4. 2,701
51. Q: A man buys a second-hand car for ₹4,77,000 and spends ₹86,000 on its repairs. What should be its selling price if he wants to earn 5% profit?
1. ₹5,91,700
2. ₹5,91,150
3. ₹5,92,500
4. ₹6,01,100
52. Q: A bus is moving at a speed of 14 km/hr. If its speed is reduced by 63%, the new speed of the bus (in km/hr) will be:
1. 5.18
2. 5.15
3. 3.75
4. 5.04
53. Q: Sumanth can complete a work in 15 days. Kumar can complete the same work in 45 days. If they want to complete the work by working on alternate days alternatively starting with Sumanth, then how many days will it take to complete the whole work?
1. 27
2. 30
3. 21
4. 24
54. Q: Mohan and Sohan participate in a 4 km race. Sohan runs x metres ahead of Mohan. Mohan starts running the race at the same time. If Mohan’s speed is 20 km/hr and Sohan’s speed is 16 km/hr, then the value of x (in m) is:
1. 390
2. 400
3. 420
4. 460
55. Q: A and B started a business by investing ₹35,000 and ₹20,000, respectively. After 5 months, B left the business and A continued the business with a sum of ₹15,000. The profit earned at the end of year is ₹4,250. What is the share of B in profit?
1. ₹13,480
2. ₹13,280
3. ₹13,180
4. ₹13,380
56. Q: The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder having radius 13 cm and height 22 cm is:
1. 568$\pi$ cm$^2$
2. 572$\pi$ cm$^2$
3. 560$\pi$ cm$^2$
4. 563$\pi$ cm$^2$
57. Q: A man receives ₹9,015 per month as salary. He saves 40% of his salary every month. His expenditure (in ₹) per month is:
1. 5,336
2. 5,409
3. 5,364
4. 5,347
58. Q: Study the given pie chart and answer the question that follows. The given pie chart indicates a total expenditure of ₹8,10,000 on different items in constructing a flat in a town. Find the expenditure on cement.
1. ₹1,69,050
2. ₹1,68,850
3. ₹1,68,750
4. ₹1,68,950
59. Q: By selling an article at 81% of its marked price, a trader makes a loss of 10%. What will be the profit percentage if he sells it at 95% of its marked price?
1. $1 \frac{6}{9}%$
2. $2 \frac{1}{9}%$
3. $3 \frac{1}{9}%$
4. $4 \frac{1}{9}%$
60. Q: The number 706705 is divisible by ______.
1. 13
2. 15
3. 5
4. 10
English Language and Comprehension Questions
61. Q: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I had intended to adopt a ______ approach, but his demeanour infuriated me.
1. proactive
2. peremptory
3. adulatory
4. conciliatory
62. Q: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. They won’t be late, ______?
1. do they
2. won’t they
3. would they
4. will they
63. Q: Identify the most appropriate one-word substitute to fill in the blank. A sponsor who books and stages public entertainments is a/an _______.
1. auctioneer
2. dilettante
3. curator
4. impresario
64. Q: In the conversation given below, fill in the blank with the ANTONYM of the underlined word: Aisha: I’m feeling trapped in a quagmire of indecision. I just can’t seem to make progress with this project. Bob: I empathise with your predicament. However, amidst this labyrinth of complexity lies an opportunity for ______. Let’s approach it with determination and work towards resolving each issue step by step.
1. amity
2. inversion
3. paucity
4. clarity
65. Q: Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given paragraph. She was a brilliant student with an insatiable curiosity about the world. She studied every subject with a great sense of fervour. Her greatest intellectual passion was for ancient cultures, especially the Egyptian. She longed to explore the mysteries of the past. One day, while reading a book on archaeology, she realised that she wanted to study the history of thought in profound intellectual cultures. However, the misspelling of her notes was a minor distraction.
1. passion
2. Civilisation
3. Archaeology
4. insatiable
66. Q: Identify the idiom that fits the given situation. Ananya was offered a high-paying job abroad, but she turned it down to stay and take care of her ailing parents. She decided to ______.
1. put her heart before her wallet
2. bite off more than she could chew
3. take a leaf out of someone’s book
4. put her money where her mouth is
67. Q: Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. 1. Food grain and raw material exports from India to Britain and the rest of the world increased. 2. Britain used this surplus to balance its trade deficits with other countries. 3. The trade pattern was marked by the massive demand for textiles and agricultural products. 4. But the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India. 5. Thus, Britain had a trade surplus with India.
1. 51234
2. 31452
3. 41235
4. 52431
68. Q: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The link between the suspect and the crime was ______ based solely on a single, unreliable witness.
1. tenuous
2. innocuous
3. facetious
4. surreptitious
69. Q: Identify the INCORRECTLY spelt word in the given paragraph and select the option that rectifies it. The interdisciplinary seminar explored how aesthetic values influence public architecture. Presenters argued that good design should transcend utilitarian function and move beyond mere Embellishment. They urged designers to avoid sterile and impersonal. In discussing this, one speaker repeatedly used the word embellishment to refer to architectural ornamentation. The audience was engaged by the arguments, several members pointed out the repeated error in spelling.
1. Empassement
2. Embellishment
3. Emerlement
4. Embellissement
70. Q: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. No one remembered the date, ______?
1. didn’t he
2. did they
3. didn’t they
4. did he
71. Q: Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words. A government that is ruled by the least suitable, able, or experienced people in a state or country
1. Aristocracy
2. Theocracy
3. Oligarchy
4. Kakistocracy
72. Q: In the conversation given below, fill in the blank with the ANTONYM of the underlined word: Sara: The absence of effective communication within the office setting only serves to exacerbate the confusion, particularly when navigating intricate projects. Tom: Implementing more comprehensive protocols could serve to ______ these issues, thereby facilitating smoother and more streamlined workflow.
1. repudiate
2. postulate
3. intensify
4. mitigate
73. Q: Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph. 1. This was before large companies called multinational corporations emerged on the scene. 2. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food stuff and imported finished goods. 3. This pattern began to change towards the end of the nineteenth century. 4. What crossed the boundaries of these countries were raw material, food stuff and finished products. 5. This was the pattern typical of colonial linkages.
1. 43125
2. 53142
3. 34251
4. 41235
74. Q: Select the proverb that conveys the same meaning as the underlined segment in the given sentence. She tried to force her research proposal through without peer feedback or validation, believing speed was more important than depth. But it failed in review. The faculty reminded her that rushing important work often leads to poor outcomes.
1. strike while the iron is hot
2. fortune favors the bold
3. too many cooks spoil the broth
4. haste makes waste
75. Q: Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. His puritanical and conscientious behaviour was in no way reflective of his ______ lifestyle.
1. liberal
2. licentious
3. regressive
4. vainglorious
76. Q: Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the passage?
1. The wind in the story is portrayed as a destructive force
2. Maya values the kite not just as a toy but also for the feeling of freedom it represents
3. Maya will likely get another kite soon
4. The grandmother is always successful in comforting Maya
77. Q: What is the passage primarily about?
1. The description of a quaint old house on a hill
2. The beauty of nature and the joy of flying kites
3. The strong bond between a granddaughter and her grandmother
4. A girl’s experience of losing a cherished kite and learning to cope with loss
78. Q: What is the tone of the passage?
1. Melancholy with a hint of comfort
2. Suspenseful and dramatic
3. Humorous and light-hearted
4. Informative and descriptive
79. Q: What is the structure of the passage?
1. Chronological order with a reflective ending
2. Cause and effect
3. Problem-solution
4. Descriptive with a moral lesson
80. Q: Which real-life situation does the passage most appropriately connect to?
1. The importance of spending time with grandparents
2. The experience of losing something valuable and learning to find acceptance
3. The excitement of receiving a new gift
4. The frustration of dealing with strong winds
Hindi Language and Comprehension Questions
81. Q: मोहन घोड़ी —– घास खा रहा है। (Mohan ghodi —– ghas kha raha hai.)
1. को
2. के
3. को
4. का
82. Q: पेड़-पौधों —– सीखने के लिए उपयुक्त रिक्त स्थान में कौन सा विकल्प सही होगा? (Ped-paudhon —– sikhne ke liye upayukt rikt sthan mein kaun sa vikalp sahi hoga?)
1. को
2. के लिए
3. से
4. का
83. Q: निम्नलिखित वाक्य खंड को सही क्रम में लिखिए। (Re-arrange the sentence fragment)
1. हमें हमेशा सच से प्रेरित करना चाहिए
2. हमें से निवेदन प्रयत्न करना चाहिए
3. हमें हमेशा प्रयत्न से निवेदन करना चाहिए
4. हमें निवेदन से प्रयत्न करना चाहिए
84. Q: समूह में असमायोजित कर दिया! वाक्य के किस अंग में त्रुटि है? (Samuh mein asamayojit kar diya! Vakya ke kis ang mein truti hai?)
1. आसमायोजित
2. कर
3. समूह में
4. दिया
85. Q: निम्नलिखित वाक्य खंड को सही क्रम में लिखिए। (Re-arrange the sentence fragment)
1. यह सहायक में सब कुछ देता है और बोलता
2. यह सहायक में सब कुछ देता है।
3. यह सहायक में सब बोल सब कुछ देता है।
4. यह सहायक सब में कुछ बोल देता है।
86. Q: नीचे दिए गए वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए: यह उद्घर्षक नहीं वर्षों से आता। (Underlined word: उद्घर्षक (Udgheshak))
1. सहायक (Sahayak)
2. भावा (Bhava)
3. वर्षास (Varshas)
4. सौभाग्य (Saubhagya)
87. Q: नीचे दिए गए वाक्यांश के लिए एक सार्थक शब्द चुनिए: किसी टूटी-फूटी इमारत या बस्ती का बचा हुआ अंश (Kisi tuti-phuti imarat ya basti ka bacha hua ansh)
1. विभाग
2. युद्धभूमि
3. भग्नावशेष
4. महातत्व
88. Q: नीचे दिए गए वाक्य में रेखांकित शब्द का पर्यायवाची शब्द दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए: नियामक में बुद्धिमत्ता से कहता- चलो, तुम्हारा बेड़ा पार हो! (Underlined word: नियामक (Niyamak))
1. नेता (Neta)
2. धोखा (Dhokha)
3. जहाज (Jahaz)
4. राजतत्व (Rajatattva)
89. Q: कारक के आधार पर वाक्य पूर्ण कीजिए। समाज सदैव ______ शिक्षा प्राप्त करने का दायित्व सर्वोपरि होता है। (Samaj sadaiv ______ shiksha prapt karne ka daitya sarvopari hota hai.)
1. में
2. के लिए
3. पर
4. मैं
90. Q: दिए गए विकल्पों में से – अपनी खिचड़ी अलग पकाना – मुहावरे के लिए उपयुक्त अर्थ का चयन करें. (Apni khichdi alag pakana – idiom meaning)
1. अपने आप में आसक्त रहना
2. मस्ती मारते रहना
3. किसी की न सुनना
4. अलग थलग रहना
91. Q: निम्नलिखित रेखांकित वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द का चयन करें। ईश्वर निश्चित है जो कल्पना करता है। (Underlined phrase: Ishwar nischit hai jo kalpana karta hai)
1. महाविधि
2. तत्ववेत्ता
3. अनुकृति
4. प्रकृति
92. Q: कारक के आधार पर वाक्य पूर्ण कीजिए। जीवन की खुशियाँ आदमी को कभी ______ पूरी हो ही स्वीकार करना चाहिए. (Jivan ki khushiyan aadmi ko kabhi ______ puri ho hi swikar karna chahiye.)
1. को
2. से
3. मैं
4. की
93. Q: नीचे दिए गए वाक्य में रेखांकित त्रुटि की पहचान कर निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से शुद्ध शब्द का चयन करें: सीखने में संपूर्णता से कम होगा। (Underlined word: sampurnta)
1. साफ-सुथरा
2. सत्यवादिता
3. सम्पूर्णता
4. समरूपता
94. Q: नीचे दिए गए मुहावरे का सबसे उपयुक्त अर्थ दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए: टकटकी लगाना (Tak-taki lagana)
1. ऊपर देखना
2. टकटकी लगाकर देखना
3. नजर रखना
4. किसी वस्तु में दोष का भाव बताना
95. Q: कारक के आधार पर वाक्य पूर्ण कीजिए। यदि कोई प्रातः काल उठकर व्यायाम कर लिया जाए तो सोने ______ सुहागा जैसी स्थिति होती है। (Yadi koi pratah kaal uthkar vyayam kar liya jaye to sone ______ suhaga jaisi sthiti hoti hai.)
1. पर
2. के लिए
3. में
4. की
96. Q: इस गद्यांश का शीर्षक दीजिए। (Give the title of this passage.)
1. विज्ञानवादिता
2. पशु और मानव
3. प्रकृतिवाद
4. आधुनिकतावाद
97. Q: प्रकृति का अर्थ है? (What is the meaning of Prakriti (Nature)?)
1. जो पराधीन हो
2. कठिन
3. नियमानुशासित
4. जिसे प्राप्त न किया जा सके
98. Q: मनुष्य में अच्छा प्रयास किसे दिया है? (To whom has man given good effort?)
1. सोच से
2. भौतिक साधन
3. मानसिक
4. ज्ञान तत्व
99. Q: प्रकृति में मनुष्य को किस प्रकार से सम्प्रेरित किया है? (How has nature inspired man?)
1. बाहर से दुर्बल, अंदर से कमजोर
2. अंदर-बाहर से कमजोर
3. बाहर से दुर्बल, अंदर से मजबूत
4. बाहर से मजबूत, अंदर से कमजोर
100. Q: पशु मानव की तुलना में क्या है? (What is an animal compared to a human?) * 1. वे अपनी इच्छाओं में है * 2. वे उपेक्षित नहीं है * 3. वे क्षुद्र है * 4. वे पूरी तरह से सचेत
Political Science Questions (Discipline Specific)
101. Q: Modern political theory primarily focuses on: * 1. normative questions about ideal states only * 2. purely philosophical reflections without practical implications * 3. empirical analysis of political behavior and institutions * 4. mythological explanations of politics
102. Q: Which of the following institutions acts as a check on executive excesses? * 1. Legislature * 2. Military * 3. Bureaucracy * 4. Judiciary
103. Q: Which of the following best characterizes traditional political theory? * 1. It is strictly empirical and value-neutral * 2. It emphasizes the scientific study of behavior * 3. It focuses on statistical models and data interpretation * 4. It is normative and concerned with how political life ought to be
104. Q: One of the key features of modern political theory is: * 1. focus on classical texts * 2. avoidance of empirical methods * 3. value neutrality * 4. rejection of scientific methods
105. Q: Which of the following statements most accurately distinguishes the legislative powers in a presidential system from those in a parliamentary system? * 1. In parliamentary systems, legislatures are strictly ceremonial and do not influence rule-making * 2. In presidential systems, a separation of powers limits the legislature’s ability to directly control the executive * 3. In parliamentary systems, a legislature has no role in law-making * 4. In presidential systems, legislatures can dissolve the executive at will
106. Q: The behavioral revolution in political science is associated with: * 1. the application of empirical and quantitative methods * 2. a focus on constitutional law exclusively * 3. a shift towards normative philosophy * 4. the abandonment of social sciences
107. Q: The scope of political theory includes the study of: * 1. religious beliefs and theological doctrines * 2. economic theories and market policies * 3. fundamental political concepts like liberty, justice, equality, rights, and democracy * 4. government machinery and institutional frameworks only
108. Q: Which institution in India facilitated system’s efforts to regulate and control its environment? * 1. Military * 2. Intelligence * 3. Guild system * 4. Bureaucracy
109. Q: Which of the following is a common feature of a judiciary that lacks independence? * 1. Judicial review over legislation * 2. Protection of minority rights * 3. Fair trials and due process * 4. Decisions favouring the ruling government
110. Q: Who is associated with the political system theory in modern political science? * 1. Robert Dahl * 2. Harold Laswell * 3. David Easton * 4. Gabriel Almond
111. Q: ‘Man is born free, but everywhere he is in chains’ Who among the following made this statement? * 1. Thomas Hobbes * 2. John Locke * 3. Rousseau * 4. John Rawls
112. Q: Post-behavioralism in political theory emerged primarily as a critique of: * 1. traditional historical analysis * 2. Marxist economic determinism * 3. normative and philosophical approaches * 4. empirical and quantitative behavioral methods lacking normative relevance
113. Q: Which of the following is a key feature of constitutionalism? * 1. Limited government under law * 2. Centralized executive dominance * 3. Unlimited powers of the state * 4. Rule by decree
114. Q: What distinguishes post-modern political theory from traditional political theory? * 1. Deconstruction and identity politics * 2. Belief in moral universalism * 3. Emphasis on elite rule * 4. Acceptance of a singular truth
115. Q: Which of the following statements regarding the philosophical approach to the study of politics is NOT true? * 1. Philosophical approach does not seek to clarify thought about the nature of the subject * 2. Philosophical approach denotes efforts to arrive at truth through the use of reason * 3. Philosophical approach seeks to clarify about ends and means in studying the subject * 4. Philosophical approach provides standards of right and wrong for the critical evaluation of the existing institutions
116. Q: Which of the following institutions is involved in interest articulation? * 1. The judiciary * 2. The civil service * 3. Political parties * 4. The army
117. Q: Comparative Political Analysis primarily involves the study of: * 1. Similarities and differences between political systems * 2. A single country’s political system * 3. Political leaders only * 4. Military strategies and warfare
118. Q: Which political institution is primarily responsible for the rule-making function in a democracy? * 1. Legislature * 2. Bureaucracy * 3. Executive * 4. Judiciary
119. Q: What best distinguishes political theory from ideology? * 1. Political theory provides normative orientation, while ideology has speculative intent * 2. Political theory gives the fullest reason possible for a certain standpoint, while ideology often short-circuits reason and reduces principles to formulae * 3. Political theory uses emotional appeal, while ideology rests on reason * 4. Both political theory and ideology are manipulative in nature
120. Q: How does the Weberian bureaucratic model relate to the executive’s rule-application function? * 1. It relies on personal loyalty and discretion * 2. It emphasises rational-legal authority and hierarchical organisation * 3. It prioritises charismatic authority in implementation * 4. It limits executive power through judicial review
121. Q: Yogendra Yadav introduced a concept of Third Electoral System to analyse the transformation of Indian electoral politics. Which of the following features is NOT associated with this concept? * 1. Democratic Upsurge * 2. Post-Congress Polity * 3. Strengthening of elite control * 4. Political Fragmentation
122. Q: Which of the following options most accurately defines the concept of Public Administration? * 1. Implementing government policies and managing public programmes * 2. Conducting political campaigns * 3. Studying ancient civilizations * 4. Managing private enterprises
123. Q: Which one of the following is NOT a function of political parties? * 1. Political Socialisation * 2. Coordination * 3. Political Recruitment * 4. Rule adjudication
124. Q: What is the primary role of the State in protecting individual freedom as per the Indian Constitution? * 1. To enforce religious customs * 2. To permit absolute freedom without limits * 3. To act on majority sentiment without checks * 4. To ensure freedom through constitutional limits and guarantees
125. Q: Which commission was established to address the demands and ensure justice related to regional imbalances in India? * 1. Election Commission * 2. Finance Commission * 3. Mandal Commission * 4. States Reorganization Commission
126. Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Weberian bureaucracy criticised by feminists? * 1. Flexibility * 2. Gender neutrality * 3. Impersonality * 4. Rigidity
127. Q: Feminist theory in Public Administration DOES NOT seek to focus on: * 1. exclusive presence in public sphere * 2. criticising dominance of male in public administration * 3. gender equality * 4. empowering women
128. Q: Who among the following introduced the “bounded rationality” concept in administrative decision-making? * 1. Luther Gulick * 2. Herbert Simon * 3. Max Weber * 4. Woodrow Wilson
129. Q: Who among the following highlighted the importance of informal organisation within formal structures? * 1. Elton Mayo * 2. Chester Barnard * 3. Max Weber * 4. Frederick Taylor
130. Q: Which of the following best represents a recent trend in social movements? * 1. Hashtag activism and online petitions * 2. Use of print media * 3. Underground political resistance * 4. Armed revolutions
131. Q: Which institution is responsible for recognising political parties in India? * 1. The Union Cabinet * 2. The Election Commission of India * 3. The Supreme Court * 4. The Parliament
132. Q: Which Constitutional provision allows States to promote justice for backward social groups specific to their regions? * 1. Article 15(4) * 2. Article 21 * 3. Directive Principles * 4. Article 17
133. Q: Who among the following introduced the concept of “span of control” in management? * 1. Chester Barnard * 2. Max Weber * 3. Henri Fayol * 4. Luther Gulick
134. Q: Which of the following concepts emphasises that organisations must maintain cooperation among members? * 1. Scientific management * 2. Theory of cooperation * 3. Zone of indifference * 4. Bureaucratic structure
135. Q: What major constitutional issue arose as a result of land reform laws like the abolition of zamindari? * 1. Abuse of federal powers * 2. Absence of local governance * 3. Conflict between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles * 4. Disregard for economic development
136. Q: Who is recognised as the father of Scientific Management? * 1. Henry R Towne * 2. Frederick Taylor * 3. Charles Babbage * 4. Frederick Halsey
137. Q: Which of the following best illustrates the shift in strategy among recent social movements in India as compared to traditional movements? * 1. Full integration into state apparatus through electoral alliances * 2. Abandonment of legal channels in favor of armed resistance * 3. Greater emphasis on intersectional identities and decentralized leadership * 4. Exclusive reliance on party-based mobilization
138. Q: Who is accredited with writing an article – ‘The Study of Public Administration’ to emphasise Public Administration as a discipline? * 1. Abraham Maslow * 2. Douglas McGregor * 3. Chris Argyris * 4. Woodrow Wilson
139. Q: Who wrote the book “Gender Images in Public Administration” published in 1993? * 1. Kathy E Ferguson * 2. Gerda Lerner * 3. Camilla Stivers * 4. Martha Nussbaum
140. Q: What percentage of seats are reserved for women in Panchayati Raj institutions? * 1. 40% * 2. 50% * 3. 25% * 4. 33%
141. Q: Which Indian personality floated the concept of “Chiti” which encompasses individual consciousness, national consciousness and cosmic consciousness? * 1. Rammohan Roy * 2. Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya * 3. Veer Savarkar * 4. Sri Aurobindo
142. Q: Which of the following doctrines emphasized India’s unilateral efforts to improve relations with its neighbors without expecting reciprocity? * 1. Non-Alignment Doctrine * 2. Look East Policy * 3. Gujral Doctrine * 4. Nehru Doctrine
143. Q: Which constitutional provision protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities in India? * 1. Article 17 * 2. Article 19 * 3. Articles 29 and 30 * 4. Article 14
144. Q: India’s foreign policy underwent a major shift toward economic diplomacy and global integration beginning in: * 1. 2004 * 2. 1965 * 3. 1947 * 4. 1991
145. Q: Which of the following is NOT a feature of federalism in India? * 1. Vertical separation of powers * 2. Written Constitution * 3. Supremacy of the Governor in the State * 4. Supremacy of the Constitution
146. Q: Which of the following thinkers emphasised the importance of community and decentralised governance in Indian Political Thought? * 1. Kautilya * 2. Mahatma Gandhi * 3. BR Ambedkar * 4. Jawaharlal Nehru
147. Q: Which major strategic partnership symbolized India’s growing ties with the United States in the post-Cold War era? * 1. Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) * 2. Indo-US Civil Nuclear Agreement (2008) * 3. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) * 4. Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace
148. Q: According to Mahatma Gandhi, knowledge is rooted in: * 1. capital accumulation * 2. textbook-based education * 3. state authority * 4. experiential truth
149. Q: What does the acronym I2U2 stand for in the context of international cooperation? * 1. India-Israel-UAE-United States * 2. India-Indonesia-UAE-United States * 3. India-Israel-UK-USA * 4. Iran-Iraq-UAE-USA
150. Q: Democratic knowledge practices in India are increasingly associated with which of the following educational approaches? * 1. Critical pedagogy * 2. Textbook-centered recitation * 3. Silent reading methods * 4. Standardized testing
151. Q: India became a founding member of which international financial institution in 1944? * 1. Asian Development Bank * 2. BRICS Bank * 3. International Monetary Fund * 4. World Trade Organization
152. Q: Which of the following best characterizes nationalism in Indian political thought during the independence movement? * 1. A call for military rule * 2. A focus on economic policies only * 3. A movement for self-governance and unity despite diverse cultural backgrounds * 4. A rejection of all cultural identities
153. Q: Which of the following is a direct outcome of pluralism in a democracy? * 1. Suppression of dissent * 2. One-size-fits-all policy * 3. Cultural uniformity * 4. Tolerance and dialogue
154. Q: Who did NOT accept nationalism (by observing conflicting claims of nations in Europe) as the highest sentiment in human beings? * 1. Rabindranath Tagore * 2. BG Tilak * 3. Subhash Chandra Bose * 4. Madan Mohan Malviya
155. Q: Feminist interventions in Indian political theory have highlighted: * 1. that women are absent from political movements * 2. only the economic roles of women * 3. the need to study the state through gendered lenses and question male-dominated knowledge systems * 4. the importance of defense policy in gender studies
156. Q: The concept of ‘Strategic Autonomy’ in Indian foreign policy refers to which of the following? * 1. Military neutrality only * 2. Maintaining freedom in making foreign policy decisions * 3. Economic independence from WTO * 4. Isolationism in world politics
157. Q: What is the primary role of the executive in the Indian Political System? * 1. Implementing and enforcing laws and policies * 2. Interpreting laws through judicial review * 3. Creating laws through legislative debates * 4. Conducting national elections
158. Q: India’s engagement with ASEAN is part of which broader foreign policy initiative? * 1. Look East Policy (now Act East Policy) * 2. South-South Cooperation * 3. Non-Alignment Movement * 4. Indo-Pacific Doctrine
159. Q: According to Gandhi, the ideal Indian state is one that: * 1. controls the economy * 2. centralises power in the capital * 3. is based on self-sufficient villages * 4. promotes industrial capitalism
160. Q: Which of the following is India’s principal external intelligence agency? * 1. NIA * 2. RAW * 3. IB * 4. CBI
161. Q: How does the legislature exercise oversight over the executive in India? * 1. By implementing policies independently * 2. Through mechanisms like Question Hour and No-Confidence Motions * 3. By directly appointing the Prime Minister * 4. By controlling judicial appointments
162. Q: Political culture refers to: * 1. the structure of political institutions * 2. the attitudes, beliefs and values of people towards the political system * 3. the ideology of political parties * 4. the economic system in a political society
163. Q: Who is authorised to make rules and regulations regarding the number of members in the Union Public Service Commission? * 1. Attorney General of India * 2. Prime Minister of India * 3. President of India * 4. PMO
164. Q: Who was NOT a part of the Neo-realist approach to International Relations? * 1. Kenneth Waltz * 2. John Mearsheimer * 3. Hans J Morgenthau * 4. Stephen Walt
165. Q: A dispute between two States over the use of a river would be adjudicated under: * 1. Article 262 * 2. Article 162 * 3. Article 172 * 4. Article 166
166. Q: According to Aristotle, which of the following is a corrupt form of monarchy? * 1. Polity * 2. Tyranny * 3. Democracy * 4. Oligarchy
167. Q: Which alternative approach in IR emphasizes the role of identity, norms, and social constructs in shaping state behavior, rather than focusing solely on material power or economic interests? * 1. Realism * 2. Marxism * 3. Constructivism * 4. Neoliberalism
168. Q: What is a central assumption shared by all variants of realism in International Relations? * 1. International institutions drive state behavior * 2. Cultural values shape global politics * 3. States cooperate for mutual benefit * 4. States prioritize power and survival in an anarchic system
169. Q: How many autonomous district councils exist in the four north-eastern states of India? * 1. Thirteen * 2. Nine * 3. Eleven * 4. Ten
170. Q: According to Plato, which class should govern the ideal state? * 1. Merchants * 2. Common citizens * 3. Philosopher-kings * 4. Soldiers
171. Q: Which realism variant most closely engages with foreign policy analysis at the individual or state level? * 1. Structural realism * 2. Offensive realism * 3. Neoclassical realism * 4. Classical realism
172. Q: What distinguishes alternative approaches in International Relations from mainstream theories? * 1. They prioritize only balance of power calculations * 2. They incorporate marginal voices, norms, and identity into global analysis * 3. They focus only on Western military alliances * 4. They ignore political economy
173. Q: The Democratic Peace Theory argues that: * 1. democracies rarely fight each other * 2. democracy hinders foreign policy efficiency * 3. democracies are more likely to go to war * 4. democracies prefer unilateralism
174. Q: According to the realist theory, why do International organisations such as the UN fail to prevent war? * 1. They avoid interference in human rights * 2. They are neutral * 3. They lack enforcement capability * 4. They are non-political actors
175. Q: A Money Bill in India can only be introduced in (the): * 1. Lok Sabha with prior recommendation of the President * 2. Rajya Sabha * 3. either Houses of Parliament * 4. Joint sitting of both Houses
176. Q: The jurisdiction under Article 131 is described as: * 1. appellate * 2. concurrent with High Courts * 3. advisory * 4. original and exclusive
177. Q: Lokpal and Lokayukta aim to promote: * 1. political reservations during elections * 2. accountability in public services * 3. judicial independence at all levels * 4. communal harmony among the citizens
178. Q: The G77 was established to: * 1. promote nuclear deterrence * 2. oversee development loans * 3. co-ordinate UN military peacekeeping missions * 4. represent Global South interests
179. Q: The Green Theory of International relations focuses on which of the following? * 1. Ecological justice * 2. Global military alliances * 3. Humanitarian law enforcement * 4. Internet governance and surveillance
180. Q: Which body is responsible for delimiting the constituencies for elections in India? * 1. Parliament of India * 2. Delimitation Commission * 3. Election Commission of India * 4. Union Ministry of Law and Justice
181. Q: Which of the following scholars is associated with the New Public Administration? * 1. Fredrick Taylor * 2. Woodrow Wilson * 3. Max Weber * 4. Dwight Waldo
182. Q: According to Andre Gunder Frank, what is the reason for persistent underdevelopment in Latin American countries? * 1. Inadequate human resources * 2. Harsh climatic conditions * 3. Continued dependency on and exploitation by the developed capitalist economies * 4. Lack of natural resources
183. Q: Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India? * 1. 42$^{nd}$ Amendment * 2. 93$^{rd}$ Amendment * 3. 73$^{rd}$ Amendment * 4. 52$^{nd}$ Amendment
184. Q: Which of the following is a challenge unique to public administration in many developing countries? * 1. Excessive citizen participation * 2. Redundancy of government agencies * 3. Capacity constraints in service delivery * 4. Oversupply of infrastructure
185. Q: Which of the following reflects the correct institutional coordination under the SVAMITVA Scheme? * 1. Ministry of Panchayati Raj – Survey of India – State Revenue Departments * 2. Ministry of Agriculture – NITI Aayog – NABARD * 3. Ministry of Finance – UIDAI – RBI * 4. Ministry of Home Affairs – Election Commission – DRDO
186. Q: Traditional public administration is most closely associated with which of the following features? * 1. Collective wisdom * 2. Market-based reforms * 3. Decentralised decision-making * 4. Hierarchical structure
187. Q: Which Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India? * 1. 52$^{nd}$ Constitutional Amendment * 2. 73$^{rd}$ Constitutional Amendment * 3. 86$^{th}$ Constitutional Amendment * 4. 42$^{nd}$ Constitutional Amendment
188. Q: Match List I with List II. List I: a. Public Accounts Committee, b. Estimate Committee, c. Business Advisory Committee, d. Committee on Offices of Profit. List II: i. Oldest financial committee, ii. Continuous Economic Committee, iii. Allocation of time, iv. Restricted to Article 102 of the Indian Constitution. * 1. a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv * 2. a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv * 3. a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i * 4. a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
189. Q: Which of the following is NOT a key theme of New Public Administration? * 1. Political neutrality * 2. Relevance * 3. Change and innovation * 4. Social equity
190. Q: Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the ‘Right to Equality before Law’? * 1. Article 32 * 2. Article 19 * 3. Article 14 * 4. Article 21
191. Q: Which of the following is NOT a subject listed under the State List in the Indian Constitution? * 1. Police * 2. Public health * 3. Foreign trade * 4. Agriculture
192. Q: Which Fundamental Right guarantees that no one can be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law? * 1. Right to Education * 2. Right to Equality * 3. Right to Property * 4. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
193. Q: The Right to Form Associations, under which civil society groups are legitimised, is guaranteed by which Article of the Indian Constitution? * 1. Article 19(1)(c) * 2. Article 19(1)(a) * 3. Article 19(1)(b) * 4. Article 19(2)
194. Q: The book ‘Politics and Administration’ is written by: * 1. LD White * 2. Frank Goodnow * 3. Woodrow Wilson * 4. Robert Dahl
195. Q: Rational choice theory in public administration is most closely associated with which of the following concepts? * 1. Economic man (homo economicus) * 2. Incrementalism * 3. Network governance * 4. Bounded rationality
196. Q: Which institution recommends disqualification of MPs and MLAs under the anti-defection law? * 1. Supreme Court * 2. President of India * 3. Election Commission * 4. Speaker or Chairman of the House
197. Q: Which of the following options about the Council of Ministers is true? * 1. Collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha * 2. Ministers are appointed by the Chief Justice * 3. The President selects ministers independently * 4. Ministers answerable only to the Prime Minister
198. Q: Which of the following is the flagship scheme of the Government of India that promotes micro-irrigation under the motto ‘Per Drop More Crop’? * 1. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana * 2. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana * 3. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana * 4. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
199. Q: A major criticism of traditional public administration is that it: * 1. emphasises democratic responsiveness * 2. encourages innovation * 3. is rigid and resistant to change * 4. focusses on citizen participation
200. Q: The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution contains how many functional items for Municipalities? * 1. 14 * 2. 20 * 3. 18 * 4. 16
201. Q: Which constitutional provision in India defines citizenship? * 1. Article 370 * 2. Article 324 * 3. Article 21 * 4. Article 5 to 11
202. Q: In contemporary India, identity-based politics, such as caste and religion, has: * 1. declined with the rise of technology * 2. been banned under the Constitution * 3. been entirely replaced by class-based politics * 4. continued to shape electoral behaviour and party strategies
203. Q: Who was the founder of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)? * 1. C N Annadurai * 2. M Karunanidhi * 3. K Kamaraj * 4. J Jayalalithaa
204. Q: The phrase ‘making space’ refers to: * 1. expanding rural land for agricultural use * 2. redrawing national boundaries with force * 3. producing spatial meaning through policy * 4. constructing homes in border territories
205. Q: The act of whistleblowing can be considered enactment of citizenship because it: * 1. refuses any form of public accountability * 2. engages the state through moral dissent * 3. seeks to migrate under economic pressure * 4. operates secretly under criminal cover
206. Q: In critical border studies, what does the concept of ‘performing the border’ primarily signify? * 1. The drawing of physical maps by surveyors * 2. The use of drones in border patrol * 3. Military enforcement of territorial boundaries * 4. The symbolic and everyday practices that constitute and reproduce borders
207. Q: Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below: Statement I: Cosmopolitanism has its philosophical roots in the ideas of Immanuel Kant. Statement II: Cosmopolitanism argue that citizenship should be limited to the membership of a particular nation state. Statement III: Cosmopolitanism argues that there is a contradiction between assertion of rights and responsibilities at the global level. Statement IV: The process of globalization has intensified the cosmopolitan view of citizenship. * 1. Only statement I and statement II are correct * 2. Only statement I and statement IV are correct * 3. Only statement II and statement III are correct * 4. Only statement III and statement IV are correct
208. Q: The CAA-NRC debate in India has been critiqued as an instance where citizenship is being redefined based on: * 1. judicial activism and economic class * 2. Uniform Civil Code implementation debates * 3. a shift from territorial to cultural – religious ontology * 4. tax compliance and Aadhaar enrolment
209. Q: Which of the following rights are typically included under citizenship? * 1. None of the given options * 2. Political, social and economic rights * 3. Only political rights * 4. Only economic rights
210. Q: Under the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019, which of the following combinations of criteria must be fulfilled by an applicant to be eligible for Indian citizenship? * 1. Hindu from Pakistan + entered before 31 December 2014 + exempted under Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920 * 2. Sikh from Sri Lanka + entered before 31 December 2014 + holds Aadhaar card * 3. Christian from Myanmar + entered after 31 December 2014 * 4. Muslim from Bangladesh + entered before 31 December 2014 + holds valid visa
211. Q: Which of the following is a key principle of data privacy? * 1. Unlimited data retention * 2. Adhering security protocols * 3. Automatic sharing with third parties * 4. Consent of the individual
212. Q: The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, provides for the establishment of: * 1. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) * 2. Lokpal * 3. National Commission for Women * 4. National Green Tribunal
213. Q: Which of the following features is NOT of the Indian party system? * 1. Pure two-party dominance * 2. Coalition governments * 3. Multiparty competition * 4. Federal structure with state-based parties
214. Q: Which of the following is NOT a condition for a political party to be recognised as a national party by the Election Commission of India? * 1. Securing at least 6% of valid votes in four or more states in a general election to Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly, and winning four Lok Sabha seats * 2. Being active for more than 25 years * 3. Winning at least 2% of Lok Sabha seats from three different states * 4. Recognition as a state party in at least four states
215. Q: What is the primary focus of ethical decision-making in public administration? * 1. Reducing budget deficits * 2. Promoting individual business interests * 3. Ensuring fairness and integrity in administrative decisions * 4. Maximising publicity
216. Q: Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP), 2023, which of the following provisions raises concerns about the potential dilution of privacy protections? * 1. Exemption of State Instrumentalities from key obligations in the name of national interest * 2. Complete ban on cross-border data transfers * 3. Prohibition of data sharing with judicial bodies without consent * 4. Mandatory biometric verification for all citizens
217. Q: What is a primary characteristic of border cities in political geography? * 1. They serve as points of interaction between different nations and cultures * 2. They have no political significance * 3. They are always capitals of countries * 4. They are isolated from international trade
218. Q: Which of the following concepts challenges the idea of borders as rigid and static? * 1. Social constructivism * 2. Territorial integrity * 3. State sovereignty * 4. Nationalism
219. Q: The United Nations designated 27 January as International Holocaust Remembrance Day to commemorate: * 1. the signing of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights * 2. the end of the Nuremberg Trials * 3. the liberation of the Auschwitz-Birkenau concentration camp * 4. the fall of Nazi Germany
220. Q: Who said political parties are inevitable in a democracy? * 1. Adam Smith * 2. George Washington * 3. Clement H Dodd * 4. Harold J Laski
221. Q: Who said that civil society emerged from the development of an independent commercial order? * 1. T R Malthus * 2. Adam Smith * 3. Samuel P Huntington * 4. Alfred Marshall
222. Q: Regional parties in India primarily emerge due to: * 1. regional identity, language, ethnicity and localised socio-political issues * 2. globalisation and foreign influence * 3. decline of bureaucracy * 4. lack of central leadership
223. Q: According to Heywood, what role does global civil society play in international relations? * 1. Promote military alliances * 2. Enforce state sovereignty * 3. Check and hold states and corporations accountable * 4. Regulate trade agreements
224. Q: Which of the following is a criterion for a political party to be recognised as a national party in India? * 1. Registering with the Election Commission * 2. Having a presence in only one state * 3. Winning a majority in state elections * 4. Securing at least 6% of valid votes in four or more states in a general election
225. Q: A key feature of environmental governance is: * 1. focusing on conservation areas * 2. monopolisation of riverbanks for farming * 3. closure of all industrial zones globally * 4. inclusion of multiple actors and institutions
226. Q: Which of the following organisations is an example of a transnational advocacy network? * 1. OPEC * 2. NATO * 3. WTO * 4. Greenpeace
227. Q: Which approach focuses on transforming the development process itself to address women’s roles? * 1. Modernisation Theory * 2. WID * 3. WAD * 4. Gender and Development (GAD)
228. Q: Which wave of feminism is primarily associated with the struggle for women’s suffrage and legal rights? * 1. Second-wave feminism * 2. Postmodern feminism * 3. Third-wave feminism * 4. First-wave feminism
229. Q: The concept of ‘sustainable development’ was popularised globally by which major report? * 1. The Kyoto Protocol * 2. The Rio Declaration * 3. The Brundtland Report (1987) * 4. The Stockholm Declaration
230. Q: The Uruguay Round of trade negotiations led to the formation of: * 1. World Bank * 2. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) * 3. International Monetary Fund (IMF) * 4. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
231. Q: Who did NOT favour the state to use its power to increase wealth? * 1. Mun * 2. Colbert * 3. Hamilton * 4. Jonathan Edwards
232. Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the governance of the IMF and World Bank? * 1. All member countries have equal voting power * 2. Voting power is based on the principle of one-country-one-vote * 3. Decisions are made by the UN Security Council * 4. Voting power is proportional to a country’s financial contribution (quota)
233. Q: Which SDG aims to achieve gender equality? * 1. SDG 10 * 2. SDG 5 * 3. SDG 7 * 4. SDG 1
234. Q: The 1992 Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro led to the creation of which major environmental governance agreement? * 1. UN Convention on the Law of the Sea * 2. The Montreal Protocol * 3. Agenda 21 * 4. The Paris Agreement
235. Q: Global value chains (GVCs) describe: * 1. religious hierarchies in cross-border ethics * 2. compilation of global census data by regions * 3. structured pricing of international stock exchanges * 4. sequential production stages across countries
236. Q: The global social movement discussed by Andrew Heywood is: * 1. The rise of national political parties * 2. Economic trade liberalisation * 3. The spread of global consumer culture * 4. The anti-globalisation movement
237. Q: In the context of International Political Economy (IPE), what does the concept of global citizenship emphasise? * 1. Loyalty limited strictly to one’s own country and its interests * 2. Limiting cross-border movement and access to labour rights * 3. A passive identity without political or legal obligations * 4. A shared sense of rights, duties, and participation beyond national boundaries
238. Q: Who talked about four types of political parties which are based on economic ideology, communal ideology, communal ideology and local parties? * 1. Subhas Chandra Bose * 2. Jawaharlal Nehru * 3. Mahatma Gandhi * 4. B G Tilak
239. Q: Which of the following international agreements is aimed at climate change? * 1. The European Union’s Common Agricultural Policy * 2. The Kyoto Protocol * 3. The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) * 4. The United Nations Security Council Resolution
240. Q: The concept of intersectionality, which helps understand the overlapping effects of caste, religion and gender, was first introduced by: * 1. Kimberlé Crenshaw * 2. Judith Butler * 3. BR Ambedkar * 4. Simone de Beauvoir
241. Q: Robert Nozick’s theory of justice emphasises: * 1. equality of outcome * 2. historical entitlement and minimal state intervention * 3. redistribution of wealth * 4. collective ownership of property
242. Q: Which country in Asia made progress in closing the gender pay gap as per the 2024 report? * 1. Philippines * 2. Saudi Arabia * 3. Japan * 4. India
243. Q: According to natural rights theory, rights are: * 1. inalienable and inherent to human beings * 2. earned through citizenship only * 3. dependent on political ideology * 4. granted by the state
244. Q: What differentiates global social movements from traditional political movements? * 1. Sponsored exclusively by governments * 2. Address transnational issues * 3. Avoid any form of protest * 4. Focus on local issues
245. Q: What principle in Rawls’ theory allows for social and economic inequalities? * 1. Principle of utility * 2. Principle of liberty * 3. Egalitarian principle * 4. Difference principle
246. Q: Who talked about a kind of mono-national state for the success of democracy? * 1. Earnest Barker * 2. John Stuart Mill * 3. Jeremy Bentham * 4. Harold J Laski
247. Q: Which authority is inherited and maintained through customs and traditions? * 1. Coercive authority * 2. Charismatic authority * 3. Traditional authority * 4. Legal-rational authority
248. Q: Negative rights impose what kind of obligation on others? * 1. Promote equality * 2. Provide goods and services * 3. Offer financial support * 4. Refrain from interference
249. Q: Which of the following is a central debate concerning liberty in political theory? * 1. Whether freedom should exclude individual rights * 2. Whether freedom should be absolute or limited by laws * 3. Whether freedom is only for political leaders * 4. Whether freedom applies only to economic systems
250. Q: Who defined freedom as being free from dominating power? * 1. Marxists * 2. Republicans * 3. Hegelians * 4. Ultra-rightists
251. Q: Economic freedom of the states were NOT adversely affected by: * 1. the Dominant US Economic power in 1950s * 2. the Bretton Woods system in 1950s * 3. Perestroika and Glasnost * 4. the military hegemony of the US in 1950s
252. Q: Who objected to the concept of natural rights? * 1. J Locke * 2. T H Green * 3. J Bentham * 4. J S Mill
253. Q: According to OP Gauba, which authority is based on established laws and procedures? * 1. Legal-rational authority * 2. Coercive authority * 3. Traditional authority * 4. Charismatic authority
254. Q: Which principle ensures that no one is above the law? * 1. Divine right * 2. Popular sovereignty * 3. Rule of law * 4. Political realism
255. Q: Which of the following best defines the core idea of democracy? * 1. Rule by the wealthiest * 2. Rule by military consensus * 3. Rule by the people through participation, representation and accountability * 4. Rule by a hereditary elite
256. Q: Which of the following economists is associated with the development of the capabilities approach? * 1. Amartya Sen * 2. John Rawls * 3. Karl Marx * 4. Milton Friedman
257. Q: What is a key criticism of cosmopolitanism in global politics? * 1. Rejects global governance * 2. Ignores human rights * 3. Supports exclusive nationalism * 4. Undermines the state sovereignty
258. Q: Which authority is associated with leadership by personal qualities? * 1. Legal-rational authority * 2. Bureaucratic authority * 3. Charismatic authority * 4. Traditional authority
259. Q: According to Amartya Sen, the problem of poverty should be addressed through: * 1. military interventions in failed states * 2. centralised state control of markets * 3. enhancing individual capabilities and freedoms * 4. increasing GDP alone
260. Q: Which Amendment to the U.S. Constitution granted women the right to vote? * 1. 19$^{th}$ Amendment * 2. 18$^{th}$ Amendment * 3. 15$^{th}$ Amendment * 4. 11$^{th}$ Amendment
261. Q: According to Neera Gopal, which factor poses a challenge to traditional identity-based politics in India? * 1. International treaties * 2. Economic liberalisation and urbanisation * 3. Judicial activism * 4. Technologist modernisation
262. Q: India’s Look East Policy, later renamed as Act East Policy, primarily aims to strengthen relations with: * 1. southeast asian and east Asian countries * 2. Russia and central Asia * 3. the Middle East and North Africa * 4. South American nations
263. Q: Identity politics in India often revolves around which of the following? * 1. Sports and entertainment * 2. Trade policies * 3. Geological resources * 4. Language and ethnicity
264. Q: Which concept best describes the use of violence as a tool to achieve political representation for marginalised groups? * 1. Structural functionalism * 2. State monopoly on violence * 3. Politics of recognition through resistance * 4. Liberal pacifism
265. Q: Who is the author of the book ‘Indian Philosophy and Philosophy of Science’? * 1. Richard Garbe * 2. Gopal Guru * 3. Sundar Sarukkai * 4. Basant Kumar Lal
266. Q: The Indian Ocean Policy includes partnerships with which group of countries? * 1. Pacific island nations * 2. Middle eastern countries * 3. Southeast Asian and East African countries * 4. South American countries
267. Q: What is the primary focus of feminist political theory? * 1. Promotion of state sovereignty * 2. Gender equality and challenging patriarchal structures * 3. Economic development strategies * 4. Military strategies and defence policies
268. Q: One of the key challenges to contemporary democracy, as highlighted by Colin Crouch, is: * 1. increasing voter turnout globally * 2. rising support for communism * 3. the dominance of corporate and technocratic elites in democratic processes * 4. a return to feudal systems
269. Q: According to Dr. BR Ambedkar, caste is: * 1. a flexible tool for religious harmony * 2. a division of labour and of labourers * 3. a necessary evil in village traditions * 4. a system to preserve racial superiority
270. Q: Peace theory armament is a slogan of: * 1. Total disarmament * 2. International Law * 3. Deterrence * 4. International Brotherhood
271. Q: Who is known for challenging Western universalism and emphasising the need for “contextual” or “local” epistemologies? * 1. J C Bose * 2. B K Malial * 3. D P Chattopadhyaya * 4. Ashis Nandy
272. Q: According to Christophe Jaffrelot, Hindu nationalism is rooted in the ideology of: * 1. economic populism * 2. secular federalism * 3. liberal multiculturalism * 4. cultural homogenization and majoritarianism
273. Q: The Constitution guarantees an arrested person the right to be informed of the grounds for arrest; to not be compelled to give self-incriminating evidence; and to be produced before the nearest magistrate within twenty-four hours of being arrested under which Article of the Indian Constitution? * 1. Article 21 * 2. Article 20 * 3. Article 32 * 4. Article 22
274. Q: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT for Consociationalism? * 1. The most celebrated proponent of this idea is Arend Lijphart * 2. It promotes majority rule by a single ethnic group to ensure stable governance * 3. It aims to restructure the entire political system around the principle of corporate decentralisation * 4. Recognising that political divisions in communities in plural societies run so deep that constitutional tinkering with majoritarian democracy is not enough
275. Q: Which of the following scholars proposed the ‘Clash of Civilizations’ thesis? * 1. Scott Appleby * 2. Charles Taylor * 3. Samuel P Huntington * 4. Olivier Roy
276. Q: Which leader is associated with reforms that led to the collapse of the Soviet Union? * 1. Joseph Stalin * 2. Mikhail Gorbachev * 3. Nikita Khrushchev * 4. Boris Yeltsin
277. Q: What was a significant shift in India’s foreign policy after the Cold War? * 1. Joining military alliances * 2. Expansion of colonial territories * 3. Isolation from global affairs * 4. Strengthening economic liberalisation and global engagement
278. Q: Which concept best describes India’s approach to maintaining good relations with all countries without aligning with any major power bloc during the Cold War? * 1. Proxy warfare * 2. Collective security * 3. Non-alignment * 4. Economic sanctions
279. Q: An informal group named ‘Committee on State Politics in India’, under the auspices of the Association for Asian Studies, was organised by: * 1. Paul Wallace * 2. Myron Weiner * 3. G Ram Reddy * 4. Iqbal Narain
280. Q: The age below which consent is not legally valid under Section 375 IPC, even if voluntarily given, is ______. * 1. 20 years * 2. 25 years * 3. 21 years * 4. 18 years
Teaching Methodology Questions
281. Q: What is the primary goal of inclusive education? * 1. Focus exclusively on students with disabilities * 2. Segregate students based on abilities * 3. Create separate curricula for different groups * 4. Ensure all students, regardless of their abilities, learn together
282. Q: A student following the deep approach of learning has the following characteristics, EXCEPT: * 1. they integrate aspects or parts of the task into a whole * 2. they see the different aspects of parts of the task as unrelated to other tasks * 3. they search for the meaning inherent in the task * 4. they are interested in the academic task and derive enjoyment from carrying it out
283. Q: What does the term “gender socialisation” refer to? * 1. The process by which individuals learn and internalise gender roles * 2. A biological process determining one’s sex * 3. The process of choosing a career * 4. The celebration of gender diversity
284. Q: Which of the following are the four fundamental skills of language learning? * 1. Speaking, memorising, reading and writing * 2. Listening, speaking, reading and writing * 3. Listening, writing, memorising and reading * 4. Listening, memorising, reading and speaking
285. Q: Which of the following comes under micro planning? * 1. Unit plan * 2. Summative assessment * 3. Year plan * 4. Lesson plan
286. Q: ________ is a certain kind of experience when a conviction of certainty comes upon quite suddenly like a flash. * 1. Knowledge through intuition * 2. Knowledge through Reason * 3. Knowledge through Authority * 4. Knowledge through Tenacity
287. Q: Which of the following best defines “growth”? * 1. The ability to adapt to environmental changes * 2. A continuous process of change and progression throughout the lifespan * 3. An increase in size, height, weight or mass * 4. The acquisition of skills and abilities
288. Q: In the context of assessment, what is meant by ‘construct validity’? * 1. The consistency of assessment results over time * 2. The practicality of administering the assessment * 3. The ability of an assessment to compare student performance * 4. The extent to which an assessment measures what it intends to measure
289. Q: The experiential learning theory emphasises the importance of which of the following elements? * 1. Fixed intelligence * 2. Passive reception * 3. Standardised testing * 4. Hands-on activities
290. Q: Which of the following is the most suitable definition of Knowledge? * 1. A self control of behaviour * 2. A set of understanding in a particular domain of a field * 3. Data used in a context and with some relevance * 4. Training on one’s own thought
291. Q: Which of the following refers to a systematic procedure for collecting information that can be used to make inferences about the characteristics of people or objectives? * 1. Measurement * 2. Examination * 3. Assessment * 4. Evaluation
292. Q: How does aesthetic education contribute to emotional development? * 1. By focusing on physical activities * 2. By minimising emotional engagement * 3. By encouraging students to express and understand emotions through artistic activities * 4. By emphasizing cognitive skills only
293. Q: In the context of curriculum construction, what does ‘scope’ refer to? * 1. The range and depth of content covered * 2. The teaching methods employed * 3. The difficulty level of the material * 4. The number of students in a class
294. Q: What does the term “gender socialisation” refer to? * 1. The process of choosing a career * 2. A biological process determining one’s sex * 3. The process by which individuals learn and internalise gender roles * 4. The celebration of gender diversity
295. Q: According to the preparation process, how can stray lesson plan and unit plan be differentiated? * 1. A stray lesson plan is less detailed than a unit plan * 2. A unit plan does not include assessments, while a stray lesson plan does * 3. A stray lesson plan is always longer than a unit plan * 4. A stray lesson plan focuses on a single lesson, while a unit plan covers a series of lessons around a common theme
296. Q: Which of the following domains has Response Chain and Movement Co-ordination as its characteristics? * 1. Psychomotor * 2. Cognitive * 3. Evaluation * 4. Affective
297. Q: Which of the following does NOT encourage positive and healthy cognitive development in adolescents? * 1. Helping them in fanaticism * 2. Helping them in setting their own goals * 3. Helping them in reviewing poorly decisions * 4. Helping them in getting adequate sleep
298. Q: Which perspective of learning emphasises the role of stimuli and responses? * 1. Constructivist * 2. Behavioristic * 3. Cognitive * 4. Humanistic
299. Q: In the context of curriculum development, what is the main focus of the ‘transdisciplinary approach’? * 1. Focusing solely on one discipline at a time * 2. Integrating knowledge across multiple disciplines to address complex real-world issues * 3. Avoiding the integration of different subjects * 4. Strict adherence to traditional subject boundaries
300. Q: In inclusive education, what is the least important trait for a teacher to have? * 1. Being sensitive to children * 2. Knowledge of students with disabilities * 3. Teacher’s social and economic status * 4. Patience and love for students
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