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Polity MCQs on Indian Constitution Articles | UPSC & State PCS Quiz

Q1 (Article 1)

Consider the following statements:

1. India is described as a Federation of States in Article 1.
2. The word “Union of States” was used to indicate that Indian federation is not the result of agreement among States.

Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2 (Article 2)

Assertion (A): Parliament can admit a new State into the Union of India.
Reason (R): Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit or establish new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true

Q3 (Article 3)

Match the following with respect to powers under Article 3:

List I (Change)	List II (Power)
A. Formation of new State	1. By Parliament
B. Alteration of name	2. By State Legislature
C. Alteration of boundary	3. By President directly

Choose the correct match:
(a) A-1, B-1, C-1
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2

Q4 (Article 4)

Consider the following statements:

1. A law made under Article 3 amounts to an amendment of the Constitution.
2. Such law requires a special majority under Article 368.

Which is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5 (Article 5)

At the commencement of the Constitution, a person domiciled in India was deemed a citizen if:

1. He was born in India; OR
2. Either of his parents was born in India; OR
3. He had been an ordinary resident in India for not less than 5 years before commencement.

How many of the above conditions are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q6 (Article 6)

Who among the following was entitled to citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution?
(a) Any person who migrated from Sri Lanka before 1950
(b) Any person who migrated from Pakistan and resided in India since July 19, 1948, with permit of resettlement
(c) Any person of Indian origin living in Nepal
(d) Any person of Indian origin born in Burma

Q7 (Article 7)

Assertion (A): A person who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947 cannot be deemed a citizen of India.
Reason (R): Article 7 disqualifies such persons unless they returned with a permit for permanent resettlement.
Correct option:
(a) A and R true, R explains A
(b) A and R true, R does not explain A
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true

Q8 (Article 8)

Which of the following is correct about Article 8?
(a) Grants citizenship to all NRIs
(b) Grants citizenship to PIOs residing outside India who registered with Indian diplomatic missions
(c) Grants citizenship only to OCI card holders
(d) None

Q9 (Article 9)

Consider the following:

1. An Indian citizen who voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country ceases to be Indian citizen.
2. Such termination is automatic and does not require Parliament’s approval.

Which is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q10 (Article 10)

Citizenship rights of persons who have become citizens of India shall continue subject to:
(a) Laws made by Parliament
(b) Orders of President
(c) Judicial review by Supreme Court
(d) Rules framed by Election Commission

Q11 (Article 11)

Parliament’s power under Article 11 includes:
(a) Granting and terminating citizenship
(b) Regulating acquisition and loss of citizenship by law
(c) Amending the Constitution for citizenship
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q12 (Article 12)

Which of the following are considered ‘State’ under Article 12?

1. Government of India
2. State Legislatures
3. Statutory authorities under control of Government
4. Judiciary when performing administrative functions

Choose the correct code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only

Q13 (Article 13)

Assertion (A): Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights are void.
Reason (R): Fundamental Rights are superior to ordinary laws but subject to amendments under Article 368.
Correct answer:
(a) A and R true, R explains A
(b) A and R true, R not explanation
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true

Q14 (Article 14)

Which of the following doctrines are directly derived from Article 14?

1. Doctrine of reasonable classification
2. Doctrine of arbitrariness
3. Doctrine of pith and substance

Correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q15 (Article 15)

Which among the following is constitutionally permitted?
(a) Discrimination on ground of religion in public employment
(b) Reservation for women in educational institutions
(c) Separate electorates for minorities
(d) Compulsory reservation in private companies

Q16 (Article 16)

Match the following special provisions of Article 16:

Provision	Description
A. 16(3)	1. Residence requirement for jobs
B. 16(4)	2. Reservation for backward classes
C. 16(5)	3. Religious institutions can prefer same religion

Correct match:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1
(d) A-1, B-3, C-2

Q17 (Article 17)

Which of the following Acts is directly linked with enforcement of Article 17?
(a) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
(b) SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Q18 (Article 18)

Assertion (A): Bharat Ratna violates Article 18 as it confers a “title.”
Reason (R): Article 18 prohibits State from conferring titles of nobility.
Correct option:
(a) A true, R true, R explains A
(b) A true, R true, R not explains A
(c) A false, R true
(d) A true, R false

Q19 (Article 19)

Which of the following freedoms were curtailed by the 44th Amendment, 1978?
(a) Right to property
(b) Freedom to form associations
(c) Freedom to carry trade
(d) Freedom of press

Q20 (Article 20)

Protection against retrospective criminal law implies:
(a) No law can punish for an act that was not an offence when committed
(b) Parliament may still make retrospective tax laws
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None

Q21 (Article 21)

Which of the following rights have been recognized under Article 21 by Supreme Court?

1. Right to clean environment
2. Right to livelihood
3. Right to privacy
4. Right to vote

Correct code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q22 (Article 21A)

Right to Education under Article 21A is enforceable against:
(a) State only
(b) Both State and private unaided schools
(c) Only private schools
(d) None

Q23 (Article 22)

Preventive detention for more than 3 months requires:
(a) Approval of Prime Minister
(b) Approval of Advisory Board consisting of judges
(c) Approval of Parliament directly
(d) Approval of President

Q24 (Article 23)

Which of the following is prohibited under Article 23?

1. Begar (forced labour)
2. Human trafficking
3. Compulsory military service

Correct code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q25 (Article 24)

Assertion (A): Employment of children below 14 years is prohibited in hazardous industries.
Reason (R): Article 24 completely prohibits employment of children below 14 years in all sectors.
Correct option:
(a) A and R true, R explains A
(b) A and R true, R not explains A
(c) A true, R false
(d) A false, R true

1. Article 1 – Name and territory of the Union

Answer: (c) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
Explanation: Article 1 declares India as a “Union of States,” not a federation. The word “Union” signifies indestructibility of states within India.
Extra Fact: Drafting Committee under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar deliberately used “Union” to strengthen the unity of India.

2. Article 2 – Admission or establishment of new States

Answer: (a) Parliament can admit, establish new States.
Explanation: Parliament has the power to admit or establish new states into the Union on terms it deems fit.
Extra Fact: Example – Sikkim was admitted as the 22nd State of India in 1975 via the 36th Constitutional Amendment.

3. Article 3 – Formation of new States and alteration of areas

Answer: (c) Both Parliament and President.
Explanation: Article 3 allows Parliament to form new states, alter boundaries, or rename states, but only after the President refers the bill to the concerned state legislature for its views (not binding).
Extra Fact: Telangana was created in 2014 under Article 3 from Andhra Pradesh.

4. Article 4 – Laws under Articles 2 and 3 not amendments

Answer: (b) Not deemed as Constitutional Amendments.
Explanation: Laws made under Articles 2 and 3 are not considered constitutional amendments even though they change the First Schedule (states/UTs) or Fourth Schedule (Rajya Sabha seats).
Extra Fact: Hence, these can be passed by a simple majority in Parliament.

5. Article 5 – Citizenship at the commencement

Answer: (a) Domicile + Birth or Residence or Parentage.
Explanation: At commencement, a person domiciled in India and satisfying conditions of birth, parentage, or residence was deemed a citizen.
Extra Fact: This was only relevant at the time of adoption of the Constitution (1950).

6. Article 6 – Rights of citizenship of certain persons who migrated from Pakistan

Answer: (b) Persons migrating from Pakistan before July 19, 1948.
Explanation: Those who migrated before July 19, 1948, automatically got citizenship if residing in India. Later migrants needed registration.
Extra Fact: This article dealt with Partition refugees.

7. Article 7 – Rights of citizenship of migrants to Pakistan

Answer: (c) No citizenship if migrated after March 1, 1947.
Explanation: Those who migrated to Pakistan after March 1, 1947, lost Indian citizenship. Exception: if they later returned with resettlement permit.
Extra Fact: Prevented dual citizenship of India-Pakistan post-partition.

8. Article 8 – Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India

Answer: (d) Citizenship through registration at Indian consulate.
Explanation: Persons of Indian origin residing outside India could register as Indian citizens with Indian diplomatic/consular representatives.
Extra Fact: This provision benefitted Indians in East Africa, Burma, etc.

9. Article 9 – Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of foreign state not to be citizens

Answer: (a) Prohibits dual citizenship.
Explanation: If any person voluntarily acquires foreign citizenship, he loses Indian citizenship.
Extra Fact: India allows OCI/PIO cards but not dual citizenship.

10. Article 10 – Continuance of rights of citizenship

Answer: (b) Citizens continue as per law made by Parliament.
Explanation: Citizens under Articles 5–9 continue as citizens, subject to Parliament’s laws.
Extra Fact: Citizenship Act, 1955 governs acquisition and termination now.

11. Article 11 – Parliament to regulate citizenship

Answer: (c) Parliament has the power to regulate citizenship by law.
Explanation: Article 11 empowers Parliament to make laws on citizenship.
Extra Fact: Citizenship Act, 1955 (amended several times, latest CAA 2019).

12. Article 12 – Definition of ‘State’

Answer: (d) All of the above.
Explanation: ‘State’ includes Union, Parliament, State Legislatures, Govt., local authorities, and other authorities under control of Govt.
Extra Fact: Courts (esp. SC in Ajay Hasia case, 1981) expanded definition to include bodies performing public functions.

13. Article 13 – Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights

Answer: (b) Judicial Review.
Explanation: Any law inconsistent with FRs is void. It establishes the basis of judicial review in India.
Extra Fact: Case: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973).

14. Article 14 – Equality before law

Answer: (a) Equality before law & equal protection of laws.
Explanation: Guarantees equality before law (British concept) and equal protection (US concept).
Extra Fact: Doctrine of reasonable classification allowed.

15. Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination

Answer: (c) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth.
Explanation: Prohibits discrimination on these grounds.
Extra Fact: 103rd Amendment (2019) introduced 10% EWS quota.

16. Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in public employment

Answer: (d) SC/ST/OBC reservations.
Explanation: Allows reservations for backward classes in jobs.
Extra Fact: 77th Amendment (1995) inserted Article 16(4A) – reservations in promotions.

17. Article 17 – Abolition of Untouchability

Answer: (b) Untouchability abolished.
Explanation: Untouchability is abolished; its practice is an offense.
Extra Fact: Punishable under Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.

18. Article 18 – Abolition of Titles

Answer: (a) State shall not confer titles.
Explanation: Except military/academic distinctions.
Extra Fact: SC in Balaji Raghavan case (1995) upheld Padma awards.

19. Article 19 – Protection of certain rights regarding freedom

Answer: (c) 6 freedoms.
Explanation: Right to speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession.
Extra Fact: Originally 7, but “right to property” removed by 44th Amendment (1978).

20. Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Answer: (b) No ex-post facto law, double jeopardy, self-incrimination.
Explanation: Protects rights of accused.
Extra Fact: Case: Kedar Nath v. State of WB (1953).

21. Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty

Answer: (d) Expansive interpretation by judiciary.
Explanation: “No person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
Extra Fact: Expanded in Maneka Gandhi case (1978).

22. Article 22 – Protection of rights in preventive detention cases

Answer: (c) Max detention 3 months without Advisory Board.
Explanation: Preventive detention up to 3 months; Parliament may extend up to 1 year (MISA, NSA).
Extra Fact: India is one of few democracies to permit preventive detention.

23. Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

Answer: (b) Prohibits trafficking and begar.
Explanation: Human trafficking, bonded labour prohibited.
Extra Fact: Punishable under Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976.

24. Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories

Answer: (a) Children below 14 years.
Explanation: Prohibits employment of children under 14 in hazardous jobs.
Extra Fact: Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 applies.

25. Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion

Answer: (d) Subject to public order, morality, health.
Explanation: Freedom of conscience and right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion.
Extra Fact: SC in Rev. Stainislaus v. State of MP (1977) – “propagation” doesn’t mean conversion.