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Polity MCQs on Articles from Articles 26 to 50

 

MCQs: Articles 26–50

 

Q1. Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs

Which of the following is NOT permitted under Article 26?
A) Establishing religious institutions
B) Owning and acquiring movable/immovable property
C) Using religion to justify denial of entry to women in public temples
D) Administering property in accordance with law

Q2. Article 27 – Freedom from taxation for promotion of religion

Assertion (A): No person can be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
Reason (R): Taxes collected by the State can never be used for religious institutions.
Options:

1. A and R are true, R correctly explains A
2. A true, R false
3. A false, R true
4. Both false

Q3. Article 28 – Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction

Which of the following institutions can impart religious instruction?

1. Institutions administered by the State
2. Institutions recognized by the State
3. Institutions receiving aid from the State
4. Institutions administered by trusts but receiving no aid

Select the correct code:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Article 29 – Protection of interests of minorities

Which of the following is correct?
A) Only religious minorities can claim rights under Article 29
B) Only linguistic minorities can claim rights under Article 29
C) Both religious and linguistic minorities can claim rights under Article 29(1)
D) Only Scheduled Tribes can claim rights under Article 29

Q5. Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Match the following:

a) Kerala Education Bill Case (1957)
b) St. Xavier’s College vs. State of Gujarat (1974)
c) T.M.A Pai Foundation Case (2002)
d) P.A. Inamdar Case (2005)

1. Minority rights upheld in higher education
2. Government cannot take away minority rights in administering institutions
3. Minority institutions entitled to recognition/aid without discrimination
4. No reservation can be forced in private unaided minority colleges

Choose correct match:
A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
B) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

Q6. Article 31 – Right to Property (omitted in 1978)

Which of the following amendments made the “Right to Property” no longer a fundamental right?
A) 24th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 52nd Amendment

Q7. Article 32 vs. Article 226

Assertion (A): Article 32 is called the “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution.
Reason (R): Article 226 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for fundamental rights and other purposes.
Options:

1. A true, R true, R explains A
2. A true, R true, R does not explain A
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true

Q8. Article 36 – DPSP

Directive Principles are classified into which of the following categories?

1. Socialist principles
2. Gandhian principles
3. Liberal-Intellectual principles
4. Fundamental Rights principles

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q9. Article 37 – Nature of DPSP

Directive Principles are:
A) Justiciable and enforceable by courts
B) Non-justiciable but fundamental to governance
C) Optional moral guidelines
D) Subordinate to Fundamental Duties

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Q10. Article 38 – Social order

Which statement is correct?

1. Article 38(1) directs the State to promote welfare by securing social, economic, and political justice.
2. Article 38(2) (added by 44th Amendment) directs State to minimize inequalities in income, status, and facilities.

A) Only 1 correct
B) Only 2 correct
C) Both correct
D) Neither correct

Q11. Article 39 – Principles of Policy

Which of the following belong to Article 39?

1. Equal pay for equal work
2. Uniform civil code
3. Free legal aid
4. Protection of environment

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

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Q12. Article 39A – Equal Justice

Which amendment inserted Article 39A on Free Legal Aid?
A) 42nd Amendment, 1976
B) 44th Amendment, 1978
C) 86th Amendment, 2002
D) 97th Amendment, 2011

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Q13. Article 40 – Panchayats

Which committee first recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj?
A) Ashok Mehta Committee
B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
C) G.V.K Rao Committee
D) L.M. Singhvi Committee

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Q14. Article 41 – Right to work

Article 41 directs State to provide Right to Work during:
A) Normal economic growth
B) Periods of unemployment
C) Certain conditions like sickness, old age, unemployment
D) Emergency only

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Q15. Article 42 – Just and humane conditions of work

Which labour welfare measure flows from Article 42?
A) Equal pay for equal work
B) Maternity relief
C) Reservation for SC/ST
D) Workers’ participation in management

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Q16. Article 43 – Living wage

The idea of “Living Wage” in Article 43 is derived from:
A) US Constitution
B) Irish Constitution
C) Directive Principles of Ireland
D) Gandhian philosophy

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Q17. Article 44 – Uniform Civil Code

Which state has implemented UCC to a large extent?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Goa
C) Kerala
D) Gujarat

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Q18. Article 45 – Early Childhood Care

Which amendment changed Article 45 to provide early childhood care instead of free education till 14 years?
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 86th Amendment
D) 93rd Amendment

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Q19. Article 46 – Promotion of SC/ST

Assertion (A): Article 46 directs promotion of educational and economic interests of weaker sections.
Reason (R): It also prohibits social injustice and exploitation of SC/ST.
Options:

1. A true, R true, R explains A
2. A true, R true, R does not explain A
3. A true, R false
4. A false, R true

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Q20. Article 47 – Nutrition & public health

Which of the following are mandated by Article 47?

1. Improvement of public health
2. Raising the level of nutrition
3. Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs injurious to health
4. Compulsory vaccination

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) All 4

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Q21. Article 48 – Agriculture & Animal husbandry

What is the main directive of Article 48?
A) Improvement of agriculture and animal husbandry, scientific breeding, prohibition of cow slaughter
B) Reservation for farmers in Parliament
C) Guarantee of food security
D) Compulsory dairy cooperatives

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Q22. Article 48A – Environment

Article 48A was added by:
A) 25th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 44th Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment

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Q23. Article 49 – Protection of monuments

Which of the following falls under Article 49?
A) Ancient and historical monuments of national importance
B) Private temples and shrines
C) Places of worship management
D) Heritage declared by UNESCO

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Q24. Article 50 – Separation of Judiciary from Executive

Which of the following is the objective of Article 50?
A) Ensuring independence of legislature
B) Ensuring independence of judiciary
C) Ensuring independence of executive
D) Ensuring independence of media

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Q25. Bonus – Fundamental Duties (Article 51A, though beyond 50)

Which of the following duties was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment?
A) To safeguard public property
B) To protect monuments of culture
C) To provide education to children (6–14 years)
D) To develop scientific temper

Detailed Answers + Explanations + Extra Facts (Articles 26–50)

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Q1. (Article 26 – Right to Manage Religious Affairs)
Answer: (c) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation.
Explanation: Article 26 guarantees every religious denomination the right to establish and maintain institutions, manage its own affairs in matters of religion, own property, and administer it. However, this is subject to public order, morality, and health. Thus, the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Extra Fact: The word “religious denomination” was explained in Shirur Mutt Case (1954) by SC – it must have a common faith, common name, and common organization.

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Q2. (Article 27 – Tax for promotion of religion)
Answer: (b) Article 27 prohibits compulsion of citizens to pay taxes for promotion or maintenance of any particular religion.
Explanation: Citizens cannot be compelled to pay taxes for promotion/maintenance of a religion. But general taxes, even if used incidentally for religious purposes (like pilgrim roads), are valid.
Extra Fact: In Prafull Goradia vs Union of India (2011), SC upheld Haj subsidy as not violating Article 27, though later it was withdrawn in 2018.

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Q3. (Article 28 – Religious instruction in institutions)
Answer: (a) I and II only.
Explanation:

• Religious instruction cannot be given in wholly state-funded institutions.
• Aided institutions can impart religious instruction if consent is given.
• Participation is voluntary.
  Extra Fact: Kendriya Vidyalayas case clarified that “Sanskrit prayers” in morning assemblies do not amount to religious instruction.

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Q4. (Article 29 – Protection of Interests of Minorities)
Answer: (c) Protects cultural and educational rights of any section of citizens, not only minorities.
Explanation: Article 29(1) protects interests of any section having a distinct language, script, or culture. Article 29(2) prohibits denial of admission into institutions maintained by the State or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language, etc.
Extra Fact: In St. Stephen’s College vs University of Delhi (1992), SC held minority institutions can have reservation for their community but must admit others as well.

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Q5. (Article 30 – Rights of Minorities to Establish Institutions)
Answer: (d) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Explanation: Minorities (based on religion or language) can establish and administer educational institutions. This right includes freedom in selection of staff, admission policies, etc.
Extra Fact: In T.M.A. Pai Foundation case (2002), SC gave landmark judgment balancing minority rights with state regulation in education.

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Q6. (Article 31 – Right to Property)
Answer: (c) Originally Fundamental Right, now Legal Right under Article 300A.
Explanation: 44th Amendment (1978) deleted Article 31, moving property rights to Article 300A (legal right, not fundamental). Compensation is not guaranteed now, only “amount” may be paid.
Extra Fact: Still enforceable in court under Article 300A, but not as a Fundamental Right.

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Q7. (Directive Principles – Article 36–51)
Answer: (b) Directive Principles are not enforceable in court but fundamental in governance.
Explanation: Article 37 states that DPSPs are not enforceable but fundamental in governance, guiding the state to frame laws.
Extra Fact: In Minerva Mills case (1980), SC held harmony between FRs and DPSPs is essential.

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Q8. (Article 38 – Social Justice)
Answer: (a) Directs the State to promote welfare by securing social order through justice: social, economic, and political.
Explanation: Article 38 provides for minimizing inequalities in income, status, facilities, opportunities.
Extra Fact: Directive was expanded by 44th Amendment (1978) to include “strive to minimize inequalities”.

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Q9. (Article 39 – Principles of Policy)
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 correct.
Explanation: Article 39 directs state policies on distribution of resources, prevention of concentration of wealth, equal pay, protection of children, etc.
Extra Fact: “Equal pay for equal work” recognized as a constitutional goal in Randhir Singh vs Union of India (1982).

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Q10. (Article 39A – Free Legal Aid)
Answer: (b) Provides equal justice and free legal aid.
Explanation: Inserted by 42nd Amendment (1976), directs state to ensure free legal aid.
Extra Fact: Legal Services Authorities Act (1987) implemented Article 39A → NALSA, Lok Adalats.

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Q11. (Article 40 – Panchayats)
Answer: (c) Directive to organize village panchayats as units of self-government.
Explanation: Article 40 led to 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992), constitutionalizing Panchayati Raj.
Extra Fact: First Panchayati Raj system launched in 1959, Rajasthan.

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Q12. (Article 41 – Right to Work, Education & Assistance)
Answer: (a) Yes, but subject to state’s economic capacity.
Explanation: State to make provision for right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.
Extra Fact: MGNREGA (2005) gave statutory right to work.

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Q13. (Article 42 – Humane Conditions of Work and Maternity Relief)
Answer: (b) Protects maternity benefits and humane work conditions.
Explanation: State to secure humane working conditions and maternity relief.
Extra Fact: Maternity Benefit Act 1961, amended 2017, increased maternity leave to 26 weeks.

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Q14. (Article 43 – Living Wage)
Answer: (c) Living wage, not minimum wage.
Explanation: State to secure living wage, decent standard of life for workers.
Extra Fact: “Living wage” > “Minimum wage” (bare subsistence). Linked to dignity.

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Q15. (Article 43A – Workers’ Participation in Management)
Answer: (a) Added by 42nd Amendment, directs state to secure participation of workers in industries.
Explanation: Not implemented widely.
Extra Fact: Linked to idea of industrial democracy.

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Q16. (Article 44 – Uniform Civil Code)
Answer: (b) DPSP aiming at common personal law for all citizens.
Explanation: UCC seeks uniformity in marriage, divorce, succession laws irrespective of religion.
Extra Fact: Goa is only state with UCC in practice.

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Q17. (Article 45 – Early Childhood Care & Education)
Answer: (d) Provides for early childhood care and education till age of 6.
Explanation: Modified by 86th Amendment (2002).
Extra Fact: Linked with Article 21A (Right to Education).

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Q18. (Article 46 – Promotion of SCs, STs, OBCs)
Answer: (c) Education and economic interest promotion, protection from social injustice.
Explanation: Core for reservation policies.
Extra Fact: Forms constitutional basis for welfare measures like scholarships, reservations.

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Q19. (Article 47 – Nutrition & Public Health)
Answer: (a) Duty of state to raise nutrition levels, public health, prohibit intoxicating drinks/drugs.
Explanation: Basis for prohibition policies.
Extra Fact: Gujarat, Bihar, Nagaland have prohibition laws.

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Q20. (Article 48 – Organisation of Agriculture & Animal Husbandry)
Answer: (b) Preservation of cows and calves.
Explanation: Directs state to improve breeds, prohibit slaughter of cows.
Extra Fact: Cow slaughter laws differ state to state.

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Q21. (Article 48A – Environment Protection)
Answer: (c) Protect and improve environment, safeguard forests and wildlife.
Explanation: Added by 42nd Amendment (1976).
Extra Fact: Basis for environmental legislations like EPA, 1986.

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Q22. (Article 49 – Protection of Monuments)
Answer: (a) State duty to protect monuments of national importance.
Explanation: Parliament controls Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites.
Extra Fact: Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) administers these.

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Q23. (Article 50 – Separation of Judiciary from Executive)
Answer: (b) Directive to ensure independent judiciary.
Explanation: Separation in criminal justice already achieved in most states.
Extra Fact: Judicial independence is part of Basic Structure (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973).

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Q24. (Article 51 – Promotion of International Peace)
Answer: (d) State shall endeavor to promote international peace and security.
Explanation: Includes respect for international law, arbitration of disputes.
Extra Fact: Basis of India’s foreign policy ideals.

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Q25. (Summary-based – Articles 26–50)
Answer: (c) FRs + DPSPs together aim at creating welfare state.
Explanation: Part III and Part IV must be balanced.
Extra Fact: In Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), harmony of FRs and DPSPs upheld as part of Basic Structure.